Answer:
ello
Explanation:
I'll be your fren if that's what cha asking :^
Answer:
$10,125 Favorable
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity
Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)
Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)
Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750
Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable
Variable overhead spending variance is
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Obtain a customer signed statement acknowledging that an annuity transaction is not recommended if a customer decides to enter into an annuity transaction that is not based on the insurance producer's or insurer's recommendation.
<h3>Who is responsible for verifying your suitability?</h3>
The insurer or third party delegate authorized pursuant to section 224.
6(c) of Regulation 187 conducts a suitability review prior to the issuance of an insurance product or the effectuation of a sales transaction; and.
The insurer has procedures designed to prevent financial exploitation and abuse.
<h3>What factors are important considerations when determining suitability of an annuity sale?</h3>
Suitability Information Gathered by an Insurer
- Age.
- Annual income.
- Financial situation and needs, including the financial resources you're using to fund the annuity.
- Financial experience.
- Financial goals and objectives.
- Intended use of the annuity.
- Financial time horizon.
Learn more about insurance here:
<h3>
brainly.com/question/15171641</h3><h3 /><h3>#SPJ4</h3>
Answer:
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Explanation:
let Z be the annual minimum cash flow
The internal rate of approach can be used here, in other words, the rate of return at which capital outlay of $2000 is equal present values of future cash flows
In year 1, present value of cash =X/discount factor
year 1 PV=Z/(1+i)^1
year 2 PV=Z/(1+i)^2
year 3=Z/(1+i)^3
Hence,
$2000=Z/(1+i)^1+Z/(1+i)^2+Z/(1+i)^3
Solving for Z above would give the minimum annual cash flow that must be generated for the computer to worth the purchase
Assuming i, interest rate on financing is 12%=0.12
Z can be computed thus:
$2000=Z(1/(1+0.12)^1+(1/(1+0.12)^2+(1+0.12)^3)
$2000=Z*3.09497902
Z=$2000/3.09497902
Z=$646.21
Answer:
For First National Bank = 15.05%
For first United bank = 14.92%
Explanation:
The computation of EAR for First National Bank and First United Bank is shown below:-
Effective annual rate EAR = (( 1 + i ÷ n)^n) - 1
as
I indicates the annual interest rate
n indicates the number of the compounding period
For First National Bank
Annual interest rate i = 14.1%
Effective annual rate EAR is
= ((1 + 0.141 ÷ 12)^12) - 1
= 1.1505 - 1
= 0.1505
or
= 15.05%
For first United bank
Effective annual rate EAR is
= (( 1+ 0.144 ÷ 2)^2) - 1
= 1.1492 -1
= 0.1492
or
= 14.92%
