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3 years ago

PLEASE HELP!!!!!!!

History

2 answers:

s2008m [1.1K]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

James I was king of Scotland (as James VI) before he became king of both England and Scotland. He acceded to the English throne upon the death of the heirless Queen Elizabeth I in 1603. James’s ensuing reign was a controversial one, in part because of many political decisions that Parliament and the public found vexing: he spent lavishly, summoned Parliament only once between 1612 and 1622, levied an unpopular tax on imports and exports without Parliament’s consent, and tried to forge an alliance with Spain, a kingdom regarded with enmity by most in England.

James I was not a popular king. Although he had ruled as king of Scotland, he was unprepared for the challenges he faced upon assuming the English throne. A slew of politically ill-advised decisions—from imposing levies to attempting to forge an alliance with Spain—put him at odds with Parliament and the public and were partially to blame for his unpopularity. Other factors included his Scottish origins (glaringly obvious from his thick accent), his cultivation of favourites (often also of Scottish origins), and his widely recognized attraction to other men (which may have led him to confer honours upon his favourites).

Explanation:

This is the best I can do:(

Luba_88 [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Stupid stupid stupid question.you should know this stupidhead.

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