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2 years ago

A company uses activity-based costing to determine the costs of its three products: a, b, and

Business

1 answer:

Keith_Richards [23]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

$3.10 ; $2.10 and $14.20

Explanation:

The computation of the activity rates is shown below:

For Activity 1

= Budgeted cost ÷ Total budgeted activity of cost driver

= $94,550 ÷ (18,200 + 8,100 + 4,200)

= $94,550 ÷ 30,500

= $3.10

For Activity 2

= Budgeted cost ÷ Total budgeted activity of cost driver

= $53,550 ÷ (7,100 + 13,200 + 5,200)

= $53,550 ÷ 25,500

= $2.10

For Activity 3

= Budgeted cost ÷ Total budgeted activity of cost driver

= $59,995 ÷ (1,175 + 1,000 + 2,050)

= $59,995 ÷ 4,225

= $14.20

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The regular distribution of lollipops, toys, or treats every Friday is an example of a ________that helps reinforce Nunya's cult

harina [27]

Answer:

It is an example of a material symbol that helps reinforce Nunya's culture

6 0

2 years ago

The Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) is a tool for licensees; which statement below is correct about the CMA

Molodets [167]

Option D is correct. A CMA is not an appraisal and should not be advertised as one.

<h3>What is a comparative market analysis?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the market analysis that may

be done by the real estate agents.

The goal is to analyze and find out the existing prices in the market by the available listings and previous listings of properties. The reason why the real estate agencies carry out the CMA is to determine the right prices for home sellers to sell their homes.

On the other hand, the purpose is to enable the buyers of these homes to buy the properties at the best possible prices.

Complete question

The Comparative Market Analysis (CMA) is a tool for licensees; which statement below is correct about the CMA?

A) The CMA is the same as an appraisal

B) A CMA is an estimate of value and an appraisal is exact value

C) A CMA and an appraisal must both conform to USPAP standards

D) A CMA is not an appraisal - and should not be advertised as one

Read more on market analysis here;brainly.com/question/17246850

#SPJ1

3 0

1 year ago

Kropf Inc. has provided the following data concerning one of the products in its standard cost system. Variable manufacturing ov

Ratling [72]

Answer:

a) The materials price variance 19026.33 unfav

b) Material Quantity Variance= $ 267 Unfav

c) Direct Labor Rate variance= $ 6127 Unfav

d) Direct labor Efficiency variance= 7710 Fav

e) Variable Overhead Rate Variance= 13099 fav

f) Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance= 3256.25 unfav

Explanation:

First We find the missing figures such as standard quantity ,hours allowed , actual price, rate. Then we list the formulae to use. After that we put in the values of the amounts in the formulae to get the results. Unfavorable variances are those in which the actual quantities are greater than the standard quantities or input .

Kropf Inc.

Given Standards

Direct materials 9.30 liters $ 8.90 per liter

Standard Quantity allowed = 9.3 * 11500= 106950 Litres

Direct labor 0.70 hours $ 25.70 per hour

Variable manufacturing overhead 0.70 hours $ 7.80 per hour

Standard Hours Allowed = $ 0.7 *11500= 8050

Actual Results Given

Actual output 11,500 units

Raw materials purchased 107,900 liters

Actual cost of raw materials purchased $ 979,500

Actual Price= Cost/ Purchases= $ 979,500/107,900 = $9.08

Raw materials used in production 106,980 liters

Actual direct labor-hours 7,750 hours

Actual direct labor cost $ 205,302

Actual Rate=$ 205,302 / 7,750 = $ 26.49

Actual variable overhead cost $ 55,414

Actual Overhead Rate= $ 55,414/7,750 = $ 7.15

Formulae to use

1)The materials price variance = (Actual Price * Actual Quantity)- (Standard Price * Actual Quantity)

2) Material Quantity Variance= (Standard Price * Actual Quantity)-(Standard Price * Standard Quantity)

3) Direct Labor Rate variance= (actual hours* actual rate)- (actual hours * standard rate)

4) Direct labor Efficiency variance= (actual hours* standard rate)- (standard hours * standard rate)

5) Variable Overhead Rate Variance= Actual Variable Overhead- Standard Variable Overhead

6)Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance=( Actual Hours * Standard Variable Overhead Rate)-( Standard Hours * Standard Variable Overhead Rate)

Working

1)The materials price variance = (Actual Price * Actual Quantity)- (Standard Price * Actual Quantity)

The materials price variance = ( $9.08*106,980 )- ($ 8.90 *106,980)

The materials price variance = (971148.38)- (952122)=19026.33 unfav

2) Material Quantity Variance= (Standard Price * Actual Quantity)-(Standard Price * Standard Quantity)

Material Quantity Variance=($ 8.90 *106,980)-($ 8.90 *106,950)= $ 267 Unfav

3) Direct Labor Rate variance= (actual hours* actual rate)- (actual hours * standard rate)

Direct Labor Rate variance= ( 7,750*$ 26.49)- (7,750*$ 25.70)= $ 6127 Unfav

4) Direct labor Efficiency variance= (actual hours* standard rate)- (standard hours * standard rate)

Direct labor Efficiency variance=(7,750*$ 25.70)-(8050*$ 25.70)= 7710 Fav

5) Variable Overhead Rate Variance= Actual Variable Overhead- Standard Variable Overhead

Variable Overhead Rate Variance=$ 55,414-( Actual Hours * Standard Variable Overhead Rate)

Variable Overhead Rate Variance=$ 55,414-(7,750*0.70 * $ 7.80)

Variable Overhead Rate Variance=$ 55,414- 42315= 13099 fav

6)Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance=( Actual Hours * Standard Variable Overhead Rate)-( Standard Hours * Standard Variable Overhead Rate)

Variable Overhead Efficiency Variance= (7,750*0.70 * $ 7.80)- (7,750*0.70 * $ 7.15)=42315- 38788.15= 3256.25 unfav

8 0

2 years ago

If the tax multiplier is minus1.5 and a $200 billion tax increase is implemented, what is the change in gdp, holding all else

3241004551 [841]

Tax multiplier = -1.5
Tax increase = $200 billion

Therefore, since the multiplier is a negative value, the GDP must have gone down.

GDP = Tax increase/Tax multiplier = 200/-1.5 = $133.33 billion decrease.
Then, the correct answer is c.

6 0

2 years ago

An engineering firm measures its output in standard service hours (SSH) per unit, which is a function of the skill levels of its

tatyana61 [14]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

The variable cost is $60 per SSH and the fixed cost is $2,000,000 per year. The firm charges $100 for each service per hour. Assume the maximum hours the firm operates (that is the output) is 170,000 per year.

1) To calculate the break-even point, we need to use the following formula:

Break-even point in units= fixed costs/ contribution margin per unit

Break-even point in units= 2,000,000/ (100 - 60)

Break-even point in units= 50,000 hours

2) %of hours= (50,000/170,000)*100= 29.41%

3) Fixed costs= $1,800,000

Break-even point in units= 1,800,000/40

Break-even point in units= 45,000 hours

The number of units required to cover for fixed costs diminished by 10%.

4) Selling price= $110

Break-even point in units= 2,000,000/(110 - 60)

Break-even point in units= 40,000 hours

The number of units required to cover for fixed costs diminished by 20%.

5) In generals terms, it is easier to increase the selling price compared to decreasing fixed costs. In this case, the best option is to increase the selling price. The effect on income and the break-even analysis is higher than decreasing fixed costs.

3 0

3 years ago