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Lelu [443]
3 years ago
6

2 points

Mathematics
1 answer:
Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

102 sqaure feet                                                      

Step-by-step explanation:

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A bag contains 4 b l u e marbles, 3 w h i t e marbles, and 10 r e d marbles. If a marble is drawn from the bag, replaced, and an
lawyer [7]

Answer:

40/289

Step-by-step explanation:

We can see these two events are independent as Regina replaced marble after drawing one marble.

We can find possible outcomes by adding number of blue, red and yellow marbles.

possible outcomes= 4+3+10= 17

Let us find probability of getting a blue marble on first draw.

P( blue\ marble)= \frac{4}{4+3+10} = \frac{4}{17}

Now we will find probability of getting red marble.

P(red/marble)= \frac{10}{17}

We can find probability of getting a blue marble and then red marble by multiplying both probabilities.

P(\text{ Blue then red})=\frac{4}{17}* \frac{10}{17} =\frac{40}{289}

4 0
3 years ago
A car dealership sold 950 cars last year. This year the dealership sold 817 cars. What is the percent decrease in the number of
Montano1993 [528]

Answer:

817/950=.86

.86*100=86

100%-86%=14%

There is a 14 percent decrease.

Step-by-step explanation:

please mark this answer as the brainlest

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I’m about to cry from frustration. Help please before I die
kvv77 [185]

Answer:

\frac{1}{3}x+16=37

63 Jelly Beans

Step-by-step explanation:

The unknown is the number of jelly beans originally in the bag or x

First he had x jelly beans

The he ate one-third of them

\frac{1}{3}x

He then ate 16 more jelly beans

\frac{1}{3}x+16

This was equal to 37 jelly beans

\frac{1}{3}x+16=37

This is the equation

Now solve for x

Subtract 16 from both sides

\frac{1}{3}x=21

Multiply both sides by 3

x=63

63 Jelly Beans

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
100xyz-75xy factor completely ​
yarga [219]

the factored form is

-25xy(-4z+3)

6 0
3 years ago
For 0 ≤ ϴ < 2π, how many solutions are there to tan(StartFraction theta Over 2 EndFraction) = sin(ϴ)? Note: Do not include va
Black_prince [1.1K]

Answer:

3 solutions:

\theta={0, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

Step-by-step explanation:

So, first of all, we need to figure the angles that cannot be included in our answers out. The only function in the equation that isn't defined for some angles is tan(\frac{\theta}{2}) so let's focus on that part of the equation first.

We know that:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=\frac{sin(\frac{\theta}{2})}{cos(\frac{\theta}{2})}

therefore:

cos(\frac{\theta}{2})\neq0

so we need to find the angles that will make the cos function equal to zero. So we get:

cos(\frac{\theta}{2})=0

\frac{\theta}{2}=cos^{-1}(0)

\frac{\theta}{2}=\frac{\pi}{2}+\pi n

or

\theta=\pi+2\pi n

we can now start plugging values in for n:

\theta=\pi+2\pi (0)=\pi

if we plugged any value greater than 0, we would end up with an angle that is greater than 2\pi so,  that's the only angle we cannot include in our answer set, so:

\theta\neq \pi

having said this, we can now start solving the equation:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=sin(\theta)

we can start solving this equation by using the half angle formula, such a formula tells us the following:

tan(\frac{\theta}{2})=\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}

so we can substitute it into our equation:

\frac{1-cos(\theta)}{sin(\theta)}=sin(\theta)

we can now multiply both sides of the equation by sin(\theta)

so we get:

1-cos(\theta)=sin^{2}(\theta)

we can use the pythagorean identity to rewrite sin^{2}(\theta) in terms of cos:

sin^{2}(\theta)=1-cos^{2}(\theta)

so we get:

1-cos(\theta)=1-cos^{2}(\theta)

we can subtract a 1 from both sides of the equation so we end up with:

-cos(\theta)=-cos^{2}(\theta)

and we can now add cos^{2}(\theta)

to both sides of the equation so we get:

cos^{2}(\theta)-cos(\theta)=0

and we can solve this equation by factoring. We can factor cos(\theta) to get:

cos(\theta)(cos(\theta)-1)=0

and we can use the zero product property to solve this, so we get two equations:

Equation 1:

cos(\theta)=0

\theta=cos^{-1}(0)

\theta={\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

Equation 2:

cos(\theta)-1=0

we add a 1 to both sides of the equation so we get:

cos(\theta)=1

\theta=cos^{-1}(1)

\theta=0

so we end up with three answers to this equation:

\theta={0, \frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3\pi}{2}}

7 0
2 years ago
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