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liq [111]
3 years ago
7

Identify the expression for calculating the mean of a binomial distribution.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Gre4nikov [31]3 years ago
3 0
A random variable X following a binomial distribution with success probability p across n trials has PMF

\mathbb P(X=x)=\begin{cases}\dbinom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}&\text{for }x\in\{0,1,\ldots,n\}\\\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

where \dbinom nx=\dfrac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}.

The mean of the distribution is given by the expected value which is defined by

\mathbb E(X):=\displaystyle\sum_xx\mathbb P(X=x)

where the summation is carried out over the support of X. So the mean is

\displaystyle\sum_{x=0}^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}

Because this is a proper distribution, you have

\displaystyle\sum_x\mathbb P(X=x)=1

which is a fact that will be used to evaluate the sum above.

\displaystyle\sum_{x=0}^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}
\displaystyle\sum_{x=1}^nx\binom nxp^x(1-p)^{n-x}
\displaystyle\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{xn!}{x!(n-x)!}p^x(1-p)^{n-x}
\displaystyle np\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{(n-1)!}{(x-1)!(n-x)!}p^{x-1}(1-p)^{n-x}
\displaystyle np\sum_{x=1}^n\frac{(n-1)!}{(x-1)!((n-1)-(x-1))!}p^{x-1}(1-p)^{(n-1)-(x-1)}

Letting y=x-1, this becomes

\displaystyle np\sum_{y=0}^{n-1}\frac{(n-1)!}{y!((n-1)-y)!}p^y(1-p)^{(n-1)-y}

Observe that the remaining sum corresponds to the PMF of a new random variable Y which also follows a binomial distribution with success probability p, but this time across n-1 trials. Therefore the sum evaluates to 1, and you're left with np as the expression for the mean for X.
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a. Fill in the midpoint of each class in the column provided. b. Enter the midpoints in L1 and the frequencies in L2, and use 1-
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Answer:

\begin{array}{ccc}{Midpoint} & {Class} & {Frequency} & {64} & {63-65} & {1}  & {67} & {66-68} & {11} & {70} & {69-71} & {8} &{73} & {72-74} & {7}  & {76} & {75-77} & {3} & {79} & {78-80} & {1}\ \end{array}

Using the frequency distribution, I found the mean height to be 70.2903 with a standard deviation of 3.5795

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

See attachment for class

Solving (a): Fill the midpoint of each class.

Midpoint (M) is calculated as:

M = \frac{1}{2}(Lower + Upper)

Where

Lower \to Lower class interval

Upper \to Upper class interval

So, we have:

Class 63-65:

M = \frac{1}{2}(63 + 65) = 64

Class 66 - 68:

M = \frac{1}{2}(66 + 68) = 67

When the computation is completed, the frequency distribution will be:

\begin{array}{ccc}{Midpoint} & {Class} & {Frequency} & {64} & {63-65} & {1}  & {67} & {66-68} & {11} & {70} & {69-71} & {8} &{73} & {72-74} & {7}  & {76} & {75-77} & {3} & {79} & {78-80} & {1}\ \end{array}

Solving (b): Mean and standard deviation using 1-VarStats

Using 1-VarStats, the solution is:

\bar x = 70.2903

\sigma = 3.5795

<em>See attachment for result of 1-VarStats</em>

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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