Answer:
answer is A open market operations
Explanation:
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Answer:
Sharpe ratio = 0.20
Treynor ratio = –0.005
Explanation:
Note: See the attached excel file for the calculations of average rate of returns, standard deviations and beta used in the calculation below.
a. Calculation of Sharpe ratio
Sharpe ratio refers to a investment measurement that employed to measure the an investment actual that has been adjusted for the risk associated with the investment.
Sharpe ratio can be calculated using the following formula:
Sharpe ratio = (Average fund rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Standard deviation of fund rate = (5.46% - 2.40%) / 15.05% = 0.20
a. Calculation of Treynor ratio
Treynor ratio refers to investment measurement that is calculated to show the risk of certain investments after the volatility of the market has been taking into consideration.
Treynor ratio can be calculated using the following formula:
Treynor ratio = (Average market return rate - Average Risk Free rate) / Beta = (1.96% - 2.40%) / 87.53% = –0.005
Inventories held for sale in the normal course of business are classified in the balance sheet as Current liabilities.
<h3>What is meant by current liability?</h3>
This is the term that is used to refer to all of the financial obligations that the customer would have to have due to themselves in the long run. These are the liabilities that are known to be dropped in the current assets and would then be settled in the course of a year.
Hence we can say that Inventories held for sale in the normal course of business are classified in the balance sheet as Current liabilities.
Read more on Current liabilities here: brainly.com/question/28039459
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Answer:
option (C) - 6.11%
Explanation:
Data provided :
Coupon rate one year ago = 6.5% = 0.065
Semiannual coupon rate = 
= 0.0325
Face value = $1,000
Present market yield = 7.2% = 0.072
Semiannual Present market yield, r = 
= 0.036
Now,
With semiannual coupon rate bond price one year ago, C
= 0.0325 × $1,000
= $32.5
Total period in 15 years = 15 year - 1 year = 14 year
or
n = 14 × 2 = 28 semiannual periods
Therefore,
The present value = ![C\times[\frac{(1-(1+r)^{-n})}{r}]+FV(1+r)^{-n}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D%29%7D%7Br%7D%5D%2BFV%281%2Br%29%5E%7B-n%7D)
= ![\$32.5\times[\frac{(1-(1+0.036)^{-28})}{0.036}]+\$1,000\times(1+0.036)^{-28}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5C%2432.5%5Ctimes%5B%5Cfrac%7B%281-%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D%29%7D%7B0.036%7D%5D%2B%5C%241%2C000%5Ctimes%281%2B0.036%29%5E%7B-28%7D)
or
= $32.5 × 17.4591 + $1,000 × 0.37147
= $567.42 + $371.47
= $938.89
Hence,
The percent change in bond price = 
= 
= - 6.11%
therefore,
the correct answer is option (C) - 6.11%
