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murzikaleks [220]
3 years ago
14

F(x) = 1,200x + 400. What is the meaning of the y intercept of the function ?

Mathematics
1 answer:
vesna_86 [32]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

see below

Step-by-step explanation:

F(x) = 1,200x + 400

The y intercept is the value of the function when the x value is o

When x = 0 the y value is 400

It is the initial value of the function

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Liza finished studying at half past 3. What time did Liza finish studying?​
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3:30

Half past means 30 min after

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Answer me pleaseeee. What is 3*3*3*3*3*3*3*3*8*8*0*8*8*9*8*6? Gk test​
olchik [2.2K]

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0

Step-by-step explanation:

Since we're multiplying by 0, the entire product becomes 0.

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As part of a study done for a large corporation, psychologists asked randomly selected employees to solve a collection of simple
zhenek [66]

Answer:

P(A')=1-0.411=0.589

And that represent the probability that they take longer than 7 minutes to solve the puzzles.

Step-by-step explanation:

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

On this case we have that n= 56 represent the employees selected to solve the puzzles.

We know that 23 out of the 56 selected solved the puzzles in less than 7 minutes.

Let's define the events A and A' like this:

A: Employees solved puzzles in less than 7 minutes

By the complement rule then:

A' : Employees solved puzzles in more than 7 minutes

Based on this we are interested to find the probability for A'

We can begin finding P(A), from the definition of probability we know:

P(A)=\frac{Possible outcomes}{Total outcomes}

For this case if we replace we got:

P(A) =\frac{23}{56}=0.411

And using the complemnt rule we got:

0.411 +P(A')=1

And solving for P(A') we got:

P(A')=1-0.411=0.589

And that represent the probability that they take longer than 7 minutes to solve the puzzles.

4 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP i’ll mark brainliest ASAPP
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Answer:

C. 4x squared -36

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
(c) Find the number of sets where all three cards are the same for exactly $0$ attributes. (d) Find the number of sets where all
Cloud [144]

C. For the first card, there are three ways to choose the number of card.

For the another, there two options, and likewise there's only 1 choice of card. So there are 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 ways that the calculation can be chosen.

Doing this for the other attributes, we get 6 × 6 × 24 × 6 ways. But the order of cards does not count in a set of card, so we divide by 3! 6 * 6 * 24 × 6 ÷ 3! = 864. It means there are 864 sets for part.

D. The cards may have the same number, color, shapess, orshading.

However, also there are 6 × 24 × 6 × 3! = 144 sets of cards, If all the colors are thesame. How ever, also there are 144 sets of cards.

If all the calculation are the same. We get the same number for shape and shadings, so there are 4 × 144 = 576 sets of cards.

what is Probability?

Probability is branches of mathematics concerning numerical descriptions of how to the likely an event is to occurs, or how to the likely it is that a proposition is true. The probability of an event is a numbers between 0 and 1, where, roughly speaking, 0 indicates the impossibility of the events and 1 indicates certain of cards.

Learn more about Probability here

brainly.com/question/13604758

#SPJ10

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