Answer:
$10, 950
Explanation:
What is the net operating income (loss) for the month under the variable costing?
Direct materials $ 20
Direct labour 62
Variable manufacturing overheads 8
Total variable costs 90
Sales ($120 x 8, 650) $ 1, 038, 000
Variable expenses:
Variable cost of goods sold ($90 x 8650) 778, 500
Variable selling admin costs ($12 x 8, 650) 103, 800
Contribution margin 155, 700
Fixed expenses:
Fixed manufacturing overheads 135, 750
Fixed selling and admin 9, 000
Net operating profit 10, 950
Option answer:
d. Interest = $10.64 and New Balance = $360.64
Answer:
A = $360.64
A = P + I where
P (principal) = $350.00
I (interest) = $10.64
Calculation Steps:
First, convert R as a percent to r as a decimal
r = R/100
r = 1.5/100
r = 0.015 rate per year,
Then solve the equation for A
A = P(1 + r/n)nt
A = 350.00(1 + 0.015/4)(4)(2)
A = 350.00(1 + 0.00375)(8)
A = $360.64
Summary:
The total amount accrued, principal plus interest, with compound interest on a principal of $350.00 at a rate of 1.5% per year compounded 4 times per year over 2 years is $360.64.
The answer to the space
provided is hops. Therefore, when we complete the sentence, we will have ‘One
important change that resulted from the movement to enterprise systems was the
creation of stronger, faster, and more effective hops among value chains.’
Answer:
B. FALSE
Explanation:
This economy is currently at its natural rate of unemployment because there is <u>no cyclical unemployment</u>
In macroeconomics, <u>full employment is the level of employment rates where there is no cyclical or deficient-demand unemployment. </u>
<u>The economy is considered to be at full employment when the actual unemployment rate is equal to the natural rate</u>.
Hence, it is false to allege that the economy in the given scenario is not currently at its natural rate of unemployment
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.