I dont think the answer is 129 unless you typed the problem in wrong. Order of operations say to do everything inside the perenthesis first so you would do the 3*2 which is 6 then divide the 12 by 6 and you get 2. so your new equation is 8^2+9(2)-7. Next distribute the 9 to the 2 that is inside the perenthesis. Square root the 8 also. Now it is 49+18-7. The answer would be 60 ...?
Answer:
1 bat : 0 hits
Step-by-step explanation:
To get this unit rate all you have to do is divide both sides by 4.
(4/4) : (0/4) = 1:0
We get the same number of hits as in the original problem because 0 divided by any number (other than 0) will always equal 0.
Can I get brainliest please?
Answer: B
Step-by-step explanation: the similar paper appears to be 2 times larger then Fransicos since 38/19=2, so I did 14 1/3*2 which equals 28 2/3, so the answer is B
Hi <span>Mrsdiaz1jd1977owwfvt!
OK so 2,000 boards per hour in 10 hours is 2,000*10=20,000 boards in 10 hours. So it can produce 16,500 boards in less than a day.
I may be wrong but I hope this helps!</span>
Answer:
1000000 = 1 MLN CODES
Step-by-step explanation:
According the terms of the problems the code has 6 digits or has 6 positions.
At 1st position any of 10 digits (0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8 or 9 ) can put
The digits can repeated, so at position 2 any of 10 difits can put.
At position 3 again any of 10 digits can put and similarly for each of next positions can be put any of 10 digits.
So each position of the code has 10 possible variants.
To find the total number of possible codes we have to multiply the number of variants for each position to each other.
N=10*10*10*10*10*10= 10^6=1 000 000
