Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": advertising is more effective than personal selling.
Explanation:
The purchase process could be classified in three stages: <em>prepurchase stage, purchase stage, </em>and <em>postpurchase stage</em>. In the prepurchase stage, consumers can use marketing as a source to find out the product or service they are looking for exists. Individual selling might not be as effective since clients without do not have much information at this stage about the brand, where to locate the product and its main features.
Answer:
The correct answer is: inputs such as wages and salaries to its employees, whereas implicit costs are non-expenditure costs that occur through the use of self owned resources such as foregone income.
Explanation:
The implicit costs.
Also known as opportunity costs have to do with alternative earning options, or money that we no longer receive when performing certain commercial actions.
A company incurs implicit costs when it waives an alternative action but does not make a payment. Implicit costs of a company are:
- The use of the company's own capital (money or assets).
- The use of money, assets and financial resources of the owner.
Explicit costs. They are what we usually see and are easy to identify. Even if they can present some complication for their determination, it is possible to identify them thanks to the business operation itself.
Explicit costs are paid with money. In a food company the costs recorded by the company accountant are the explicit costs, for which the company disburses cash, such as wages and salaries, truck maintenance, tolls, service payments, and so on.
Answer: d. money
Explanation: the flow of the resources, goods and services move around in a clockwise flow while money flow in an anticlockwise flow. This is to say without money, the flow of goods and services will be impossible.
Answer:
The 1st ratio examines debt by observing at the company's balance sheet, whereas the other two ratios examine debt by observing at the company's income statement. Thus, debt-to-total-assets ratio processes the %age of assets delivered by debt in order to fund total assets. The computed equation will be: (Total long term debt + Total short term debt) / Total assets). The high debt ratios that overdo the business average might create it expensive for a company to borrow the extra funds without initial raising for more equity. The period’s interest received ratio processes the degree to which the income can fall before the company is incapable to meet its yearly interest expense expenditures. However, the computed equation is EBIT / total interest payable: EBIT is used as the numerator as it is funded with pretax dollars. The company’s capability to pay will not be affected by the taxes. The EBITDA analysis ratio is EBITDA / total interest: This proportion is more comprehensive than the TIE proportion because it identifies that depreciation and payback are not expenses, so these aggregates are accessible to service debt, and lease expenses and principal refunds are fixed expenses.
Answer:
raises;larger;decrease;always.
Explanation:
Consider the relationship between monopoly pricing and the price elasticity of demand. If demand is inelastic and a monopolist raises its price, quantity would fall by a larger percentage than the rise in price, causing profit to decrease. Therefore, a monopolist will always produce a quantity at which the demand curve is elastic because he or she will be maximizing profits.
A monopolistic market is a type of market structure that is typically characterized by a single supplier or seller of a particular product without any competition from any other in the market. The features of a monopolistic market are;
- Single seller.
- Profit maximizer.
- Price maker.
- High barriers to entry for others.
- Price discrimination.
- No close substitutes or competition.