Answer:
$12
Explanation:
The standalone price is the price at which the seller (Verma) would sell its products or services (discount coupon) separately to other customers.
to determine the standalone price of the discount coupon we must multiply the change in discount by the expected use of the coupons:
- change in discount = $150 x (50% - 10%) = $150 x 40% = $60
- expected use = 20%
= $60 x 20% = $12
Answer:
a)
Explanation:
Phishing is a type of deception in which an intruder disguises himself in email or other means of communication as a reputable individual or person. Attackers would normally use phishing e-mails to spread a range of malicious links or attachments. Some people will gather login credentials or victims' account details.
So as per above definition only option A seems the correct alternative among al the other option when discussing about Phishing.
A con executed using technology, typically targeted at acquiring sensitive information, or tricking someone into installing malicious software.
Answer:
C). Shannon's physician gives her some pain medication and tells her not to drive after she takes it, as the medication induces drowsiness. In spite of the doctor's warning, Shannon decides to drive to the store while on the medication. Owing to her lack of alertness, she fails to stop at a traffic light and crashes into another vehicle, causing a passenger in that vehicle to be injured.
Explanation:
Negligence is defined as the 'tort whereby a duty of reasonable or standard care as defined by law is breached, causing damage or any conduct short of .'
In the above situation, Shanon was aware of the after-effects of the medication she took as her physician instructs her to not drive because she may feel drowsy. Despite this warning, her decision to drive to the store reflects her negligence i.e. 'intentional action that falls below the legal standard for preventing unreasonable damage or harm.' Thus, <u>option C</u> is the correct answer.
Answer:
a. 10.04%
b. $82.78
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
a. Expected rate of return or market capitalization = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 5% + 0.72 × (12% - 5%)
= 5% + 0.72 × 7%
= 5% + 5.04%
= 10.04%
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) is also known as the market risk premium and the same is applied.
b. Now the intrinsic value would be
= Expected dividend ÷ (Required rate of return - growth rate)
= $5 ÷ (10.04% - 4%)
= $5 ÷ 6.04%
= $82.78
Answer:
C) Net present value
Explanation:
In this method, the initial investment is subtracted from the discounted present value cash inflows. If the amount comes in positive than the project is beneficial for the company otherwise not.
And, the internal rate of return is that return in which the Net present value come zero.
The average rate of return shows a ratio between the average net profit and the average investment.
In mathematically,
Net present value = Present value of all yearly cash inflows after applying discount factor - initial investment
