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Vilka [71]
3 years ago
14

as internet usage grows in a particular country, more and more of its regional governments are placing services online. thirty f

our out of the fifty regions have web sites that allows residents to file their residents to file their regional income tax online. how many regions do not have this type of website. what fraction of regions do not have this type of website
Mathematics
1 answer:
Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
7 0

16 regions do not have this type of website . And , \frac{8}{25} fraction of regions do not have this type of website .

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

Here we have , as internet usage grows in a particular country, more and more of its regional governments are placing services online. thirty four out of the fifty regions have web sites that allows residents to file their residents to file their regional income tax online. We need to find how many regions do not have this type of website. what fraction of regions do not have this type of website .Let's find out:

It's given that , thirty four out of the fifty regions have web sites , region which don't have :

⇒ 50-34

⇒ 16

So, 16 region don't have this type of website!

Fraction of region that don't have this type of website is :

⇒\frac{16}{50}

⇒\frac{8(2)}{25(2)}

⇒\frac{8}{25}

Therefore , 16 regions do not have this type of website . And , \frac{8}{25} fraction of regions do not have this type of website .

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A coin has one of two outcomes: heads or tails.
Each has an equal probability of occurring, meaning that they each have a 50% chance to occur. (They need to add up to 100% because they include all the outcomes, divide that into two equal parts and...)

This is what we call theoretical probability. It's a guess as to how probability <em>should</em> work. Like in the experiment, it's not always going to be 50-50.

What <em>actually happens</em> is called experimental probability. This may vary slightly from theoretical probability because you can't predict probability with complete certainty, you can only say what is <em>most likely to happen</em>.

We want to find the probability of getting heads in our experiment so we can compare it to the theoretical outcome. To do this, we need to compare the number of heads to the total number of outcomes.

We have 63 heads, and a total of 150 coin flips.
That makes the probability of getting a heads 63/150.
The hard part is getting this ratio into a percent.

You can try simply dividing, but you should be able to notice something here.
SInce the top and the bottom of our fraction are both divisible by 3, we can <em>simiplify</em>.
63 ÷ 3 = 21
150 ÷ 3 = 50
So we could say that 63/150 = 21/50.

A percent is basically a fraction out of 100.
Just like you can divide the parts of a ratio by the same number and it will stay the same, you can also multiply. To get the fraction out of 100, let's multiply by 2.
(since 50 × 2 = 100)

21 × 2 = 42
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Comparing our experimental probability to the theoretical one...it is 8% lower.
7 0
3 years ago
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Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Answer:

1. 74 because 8(10) - 6

2.4(4) - 5(3) = 1

3. 7(3)+8(4) * 2 = 106

4. A

5.a

6. 20.5

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8.a

9.a

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Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Leona purchased a $1,000 bond having a quoted price of 99.875. She had to pay a 5.5% brokerage fee (of the selling price). What
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

None of these choices are correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

If a bond is quoted at 99.875, it means that it is sold at 99.875%  of the face value;

Face value = 1000

Therefore, Price = 0.99875 * 1000

Price = $998.75

If Leona pays  5.5% of the selling price, it means that she is paying additional cost which will make the total cost more than the quoted price;

5.5% of 998.75 is;

0.055*998.75 = $54.93

The total cost = $998.75 +$54.93

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Therefore, none of the given choices is correct.

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Answer with Step-by-step explanation:

Let A is non-singular

\mid A\mid\neq 0

We have to prove that A^{-1} is unique.

Suppose B and C are inverse of A such that

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(BA)C=B(AC)

I\cdot C=B\cdot I

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Hence, the inverse of A is unique.

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