Answer:
Accounts
Wages Expense
Wages Payable
$100,000
$100,000
Explanation:
As the expense is accrued but not paid at the end of 2013. The transaction requires an adjusting entry. This will charge a wages expense and create the wages payable liability. Ultimately on January 3 it will be paid. Wages for the two weeks are $100,000 and the 14 days has been passed for the pay period until year end of 2013.
Question Completion:
ANSWER CHOICES
A. operating with decreasing returns to scale
B. a natural monopoly
C. a legal monopoly
D. monopolistically competitive
E. productively efficient
Answer:
Based on this data, the market for product Z is:
A. operating with decreasing returns to scale.
Explanation:
For the Average Revenue (Price) to equal the Average Total Cost (ATC) and enable the firms operating in the market to break-even, the firms must increase their production units from 2 million to 3.5 million units. The conclusion that the market for product Z is operating with decreasing returns to scale for a single supplier is because it will take a 75% increase in production for the average total cost to fall from $7 to $5 for the single producer. In other words, the percentage increase in production does not result in a proportionate decrease in average total cost.
Answer: $1,750
Explanation:
Incurring a health insurance cost of $5,000 or increasing salaries by $5,000 will have the same effect on the taxes because they will both be removed from the income before the taxes are calculated.
The reduction in tax in either case is:
= Expense * Tax rate
= 5,000 * 35%
= $1,750
Answer:
B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.
C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.
Explanation:
A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.
There are certain characteristics
Option B
The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.
Option C.
As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.
For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.
Answer: Current Price $26.65
Explanation:
Rate of return = 12.5%
dividends = $1.98
Expected Price (in a year from now) Pe= $28
Current price = Pc
R = (Pe - Pc + D)/Pa
0.1250 = (28 - Pc + 1.98)/Pc
28 - Pc + 1.98 = 0.1250Pc
-Pc - 0.1250Pc = - 28 - 1.98
- 1.125Pc = -29.98
Pc = -29.98/(-1.1250Pc) = 26.64888889
Pc = $ 26.65
