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ollegr [7]
4 years ago
12

Icon International, a software company, incorporated on January 1, 2013 is planning to convert to IFRS. The company decided to p

resent its first IFRS statements for the year ended December 31, 2015. What is the transition date of Icon International? A. December 31, 2015 B. January 1, 2015 C. January 1, 2013 D. December 31, 2013
Business
1 answer:
bekas [8.4K]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct transition date which Icon international will show is B) January 1, 2015.

Explanation:

Icon international which was incorporated on January 1, 2013, wants to convert to IFRS( International financial reporting standards ) , which provides a  similar international language for business affairs, which would help making company accounts comparable and understandable across the global boundaries.

The correct transition date would be the year starting date ( 1 January ) , as the year in which company starts adopting to IFRS standards and making IFRS statements , so here the January 1, 2015 would be the correct transition date.

You might be interested in
Firms HD and LD are identical except for their level of debt and the interest rates they pay on debt—HD has more debt and pays a
Luden [163]

Answer:

2.41%

Explanation:

The difference between the two firms' ROEs is shown below:-

Particulars          Firm HD                             Firm LD

Assets $200      Debt ratio 50%            Debt ratio 30%

EBIT $40            Interest rate 12%          Interest rate 10%

Tax rate 35%

Debt                            $100                              $60

Interest                        $12                                  $6

                          ($100 × 12%)                       ($60 × 10%)      

Taxable income         $28                                 $36

                               ($40- $12)                          ($40 - $6)

Net income                $18.2                                $22.1

                       $28 × (1 - 0.35)                     $36 × (1 - 0.35)

Equity                          $100                                $140

                              ($200 - $100)                   ($200 - $60)

ROE                              18.2%                               15.79%

                           ($18.2 ÷ $100)                   ($22.1 ÷ $140)

Taxable income = EBIT - Interest

Net income = Income - Taxable income

Equity = Assets - Debt

ROE = Net income ÷ Equity

Difference in ROE = ROE Firm HD - ROE Firm LD

= 18.2% - 15.79%

= 2.41%

So, for computing the difference between the two firms' ROEs we simply deduct the ROE firm LD from ROE firm HD.

3 0
3 years ago
6.
Vikki [24]

Answer:

Brand performance

Explanation:

Brand performance is the concept that compares and contrasts the goals a brand sets and how it meets those targets.

Therefore, brand performance is the concept that describe how well a market fulfills customers needs.

The answer is D

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that you are an orange grower. Would you expect the demand for your
aksik [14]

It should be noted that the demand for orange will be elastic because when there's a change in price, there'll be a larger change in quantity demanded.

It should be noted that an elastic demand simply means a situation whereby a change in the price of a good lead to a larger change in the quantity demanded.

In this case, the demand for orange will be elastic because when there's a change in price, there'll be a larger change in quantity demanded. For example, an increase in price will make the customers buy other fruits.

Learn more about demand on:

brainly.com/question/25585026

8 0
2 years ago
Depreciation Methods A delivery truck costing $22,000 is expected to have a $2,000 salvage value at the end of its useful life o
Artist 52 [7]

Answer:

a. $5,000

b. $5,500

c. $6,000

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year is shown below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($22,000 - $2,000) ÷ (4 years)

= ($20,000) ÷ (4 years)

= $5,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 4

= 25%

Now the rate is double So, 50%

In year 1, the original cost is $22,000, so the depreciation is $11,000 after applying the 50% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the $11,000 × 50% = $5,500

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (estimated production)

= ($22,000 - $2,000) ÷ ($100,000 miles)

= ($20,000) ÷ ($100,000 miles)

= $0.2 per miles

Now for the second year, it would be

= Production units in second year × depreciation per miles

= 30,000 miles × $0.2

= $6,000

4 0
3 years ago
KING company wants to issue new 10-years bonds to finance some needed expansion. The company currently has an 8 percent coupon b
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

Coupon rate is 7.41%

Explanation:

Using the price formula , the yield to maturity can be calculated first of all:

Bond price=coupon interest /yield to maturity

Bond price is $1080

coupon interest is 8%*$1000=$80

$1080=$80/yield to maturity

$1080*yield to maturity=$80

yield to maturity=$80/$1080

                         =7.41%

However if the price of the bond becomes the par value, the coupon rate can be calculated thus:

$1000=coupon payment/7.41%

coupon payment =$1000*7.41%

coupon payment=$74.1

coupon rate=$74.1/100=7.41%

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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