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miv72 [106K]
4 years ago
10

How is foreign exchange management (FEM)the core issue in international finance and how does it affect balance of payment

Business
1 answer:
V125BC [204]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Foreign Exchange Management (FEM) is the core issue in international finance in that it helps facilitate external trade and maintenance of foreign exchange.

FEM is a tool used by Central bank to adjust currency flows to offset the international exchange of funds thereby effecting balance of payment equilibrium.

Explanation:

Foreign exchange management is  a protective measure against the adverse impact of unanticipated changes in exchange rates. It is at the core of International Finance.

The central bank liaises with the International Monetary Fund, World Bank and other financial bodies to hedge against these unanticipated changes as a way of stabilizing exchange rates.

The balance of payments does not impact the exchange rate in a fixed-rate system because central banks adjust currency flows to offset the international exchange of funds.

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Quail Company builds snowboards. Quail Company has reported the following costs for the previous year. Assume no production inve
Whitepunk [10]

Answer:

a.the direct material costs= $ 131,000

b. the direct labor cost= $ 86,000

c. the manufacturing overhead= $ 282,100

d. the total manufacturing cost= $ 499,100

e.  the prime cost= $ 217,000

f.  the conversion cost= $ 368,100

g.  the total period cost== $ 165,000

Explanation:

a.The Direct Material Costs.

Fiber glass raw material          $ 93,000

Binding raw materials              <u>$ 38,000</u>

<u>Direct material costs.                $ 131,000</u>

b. The Direct Labor Cost.

<em><u>Wages of assembly workers $ 86,000</u></em>

c. The Manufacturing Overhead.

Screws                                          $ 1,100

Wages of snowboard painters $ 82,000

Wages for maintenance workers $ 37,000

Factory rent                                   $ 48,000

Utilities for factory                          $ 15,000

Factory property taxes                       $ 12,000

Depreciation on production equipment $ 29,000

Production supervisor salary                 $ 58,000

The Manufacturing overhead          $ 282,100

d. The Total Manufacturing Cost. = $ 131,000 +$ 86,000  +   $ 282,100

= $ 499,100

e.  The Prime cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor

                                = $ 131,000 +$ 86,000=  $ 217,000

f.  The Conversion Cost   = Direct Labor + FOH

                                           =$ 86,000  +   $ 282,100

                                           = $ 368,100

g.  The Total Period Cost.

Period Costs= Non manufacturing Costs

                   =   Sales manager salary $ 42,000+Advertising $ 123,000

                      = $ 165,000

4 0
4 years ago
If there is no product differentiation at​ all, then the individual firm has a demand curve that is A. slightly downward sloping
Keith_Richards [23]

Answer:

C) perfectly elastic and identical to the firm in perfect competition.

Explanation:

In a perfectly competitive market, firms supply identical products, so the customers are indifferent towards buying the product from any supplier. What makes a monopolistic competition market different is that products are differentiated, so the customers will choose from which supplier to purchase the product.

When the products are identical (not differentiated), then the firm's demand curve will be perfectly elastic because a change in price will make their customers simply change the supplier. I.e. the products are all substitutes.

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3 years ago
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Snowdrops Co. is growing at a very fast rate. As a result, the company expects to increase its dividend to $0.50, $1.00, $1.50,
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Answer:

B. $19.09

Explanation:

D1 = $0.50

D2 = $1.00

D3 = $1.50

D4 = $2.00

D5 = D4(1+g)

and <em>g</em> is given as 6%

D5 = 2.00(1.06) = 2.12

Next, find the PV of each dividend at a discount rate of 14%

PV(D1) = 0.50/(1.14) = 0.4386

PV(D2) = 1.00/(1.14²) = 0.7695

PV(D3) = 1.50/(1.14³) = 1.0125

PV(D4) = 2.00/(1.14^4) = 1.1842

Find the present value of the terminal value (D5 onwards);

PV(D5 onwards) = \frac{\frac{2.12}{0.14-0.06} }{1.14^{4} } \\ \\ =\frac{26.5}{1.68896} \\ \\ =15.6901

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= 0.4386 + 0.7695 + 1.0125 + 1.1842 + 15.6901

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Therefore, the current value = $19.09

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