Answer:
B is the correct option.
Explanation:
In theory, the perfect market is the structure in which all the firms sell identical products,They all are price takers, the market share doesn't influence the prices, firms can enter or exit the market without cost and resources are perfectly mobile. No markets are in the sphere of the perfect competition model. so they are classified as imperfect. The imperfect and perfect market is the outcome of post-classical economic thought of the Cambridge tradition.
Answer:
The stock's new expected rate of return is 14%
Explanation:
Ke=Rf+beta(Mrp-Rf)
Ke is the cost of capital is 10.20%
Rf i the risk free rate which is unknown
beta is 1.00
(Mrp-Rf) is the market risk premium at 6%
10.20%=Rf+1.0(6%)
10.20%=Rf+6.0%
Rf=10.20-6.00%
Rf=4.20%
Beta for the risky asset is 1.00*130%=1.3
New risk rate is the old rate plus inflation rate of 2.00%
new risk free=4.2%+2%=6.2%
The expected return on the new asset is computed thus:
Ke=6.2%+1.3(6%)
Ke=6.2%+7.8%
Ke=14%
Answer:
Dr Bond investment $50,000
Cr cash $50,000
Dr cash $1,250
Cr interest revenue $1,250
Dr cash $50,000
cr bond investment $50,000
Explanation:
On July 1 2019,Red company would have parted with cash of $50,000 which means that cash account should be credited with $50,000 while bond investment account is debited with same amount
On receipt of first interest payment of $1,250 (5%*$50,000*1/2) cash is debited with $1,250 while interest revenue is credited with the same amount.
Upon receipt of face value at redemption,the journal entry would be opposite of the initial one
I don’t know the answer I just need the points like really badly and I’m really sorry
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The day of the week a golf course is mostly likely to be closed on is Monday. =)
