The answer is 14 because the greatest common factor is 14 and is the highest number divisible by both numbers
Hope this helped
Well, I don't know. Let's see . . . . .
First draw: One 'M' available out of 11 letters. Probability of picking it = 1/11.
2nd draw: Four 'I's available out of 10 letters. Probability of picking one = 4/10.
3rd draw: Four 'S's available out of 9 letters. Probability of picking one = 4/9.
4th draw: Three 'S's available out of 8 letters. Probability of picking one = 3/8.
5th draw: Three 'I's available out of 7 letters. Probability of picking one = 3/7.
6th draw: Two 'S's available out of 6 letters. Probability of picking one = 2/6.
7th draw: One 'S' available out of 5 letters. Probability of picking it = 1/5.
8th draw: Two 'I's available out of 4 letters. Probability of picking it = 2/4.
9th draw: Two 'P's available out of 3 letters. Probability of picking one = 2/3.
10th draw: One 'P' available out of 2 letters. Probability of picking it = 1/2.
11th draw: One letter left. It is an 'I'. Probability of picking it = 1 .
Probability of all of those draws in order =
(1/11) x (4/10) x (4/9) x (3/8) x (3/7) x (2/6) x (1/5) x (2/4) x (2/3) x (1/2) x (1) =
1,152 / 39,916,800 =
1 / 34,650 =
0.00002886 =
<em> 0.002886 percent</em> (rounded)
Not a good bet. (But better than the lottery.)
It is 40 becuase points and due
Since the second equation gives a value for a, we can substitute it into the other equation to find a value for B.
Let's substitute b-2 into the first equation wherever there is an a.
a - 3b = 4
(b-2) - 3b = 4
b - 2 - 3b = 4
-2 - 2b = 4
-2b = 6
b = -3
Now let's find a by substituting -3 into either of the equations to find the value of a.
a = b - 2
a = -3 - 2
a = -5
So your solution set is (-5, -3)
Using the image I gave you, you don't need to solve for x.
So tan is opposite/adjacent
sin: opposite/hypotenuse
cos: adjacent/hypotenuse
Take theta and do: adjacent/hypotenuse which is cosine
cos theta = adjacent/hypotenuse
cos theta = 1.5/9
inverse cos = 1.5/9 and the answer is: 80.4 degrees