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ladessa [460]
3 years ago
7

On average, the manufacturing (processing) time spent per order is approximately 4 days. In addition, a typical order spends 4 d

ays moving from process to process, 3 days in storage, and 2 days in inspection. For an average order, what is the manufacturing cycle efficiency (%), rounded to 1 decimal place (e.g., 32.463% = 32.5%)? (Hint: Refer to Exhibit 14.14 and accompanying discussion.)
Business
1 answer:
lozanna [386]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

30.8 %

Explanation:

Manufacturing cycle efficiency refers to proportionate time that a product spends in value adding activities and process as compared to the entire time it is in the supply chain. The only value adding activity we can assume is when the actual manufacturing takes place thus the 4 days.

We can calculate total time by adding all the days the product was with the company such as

Total time spent in the supply chain = 4 + 4 + 3 + 2 = 13 days

so,

Manufacturing cycle efficiency = 4/13 = 0.3077 or 30.8 %

Hope that helps.

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Assume a central bank follows a rule that requires it to take steps to keep the price level constant. If the long run price leve
Gre4nikov [31]

Answer:

a) the central bank would have to decrease the money supply which would decrease output.

Explanation:

In the case when the long run price would fall due to the reduction in the aggregate demand and there is a rise of short run aggregate supply so the central bank would have to reduce the money supply due to this it automatically reduced the output as it shows the direct relation between the money supply and the output

Therefore the correct option is a.

4 0
3 years ago
At each calendar year-end, Mazie Supply Co. uses the percent of accounts receivable method to estimate bad debts. On December 31
polet [3.4K]

Answer:

Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

(a) a $415 credit balance before the adjustment.

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $685

     To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts   $685

(Being bad debt expense recorded)

Since the allowance for doubtful debts have a credit balance so this amount will be deducted. The computation is shown below?:

= (Outstanding accounts receivable × uncollectible rate) - credit balance

= ($55,000 × 2%) - $415

= $1,100 - $415

= $685

(b) a $291 debit balance before the adjustment.

Bad debt expense A/c Dr  $1,391

     To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts   $1,391

(Being bad debt expense recorded)

Since the allowance for doubtful debts have a debit balance so this amount will be added. The computation is shown below?:

= (Outstanding accounts receivable × uncollectible rate) + debit balance

= ($55,000 × 2%) + $291

= $1,100 -+$291

= $1,391

6 0
3 years ago
At Qliktech, the company CEO, Lars Bjork, honors employees who demonstrate the company’s core values. Qliktech holds a summit ea
Alina [70]

Answer:

extrinsic rewards

Explanation:

Extrinsic rewards are tangible, material and visible rewards. Money, promotions or trophies are examples of extrinsic rewards. For a reward to be considered extrinsic, it must be visible and made public.

For example, during a special ceremony, a golden watch is given to all the employees that have been working for the company during the last 30 years.

7 0
3 years ago
Abbot Inc. is considering the following investment opportunities. Required Compute the future value under each of the investment
Over [174]

Answer:

$ 67,196

$132482

$88,727

$131,761

Explanation:

The formula for calculating future value:

FV = P (1 + r/m)^mn

FV = Future value  

P = Present value  

R = interest rate  

N = number of years  

m =number of compounding

$50,000 x ( 1 + 0.06/2)^10 = $67,196

$60,000 x ( 1 + 0.08/4)^40 = $132,482

$40,000 x (1 + 0.1/12)^96 = $88,727

$80,000 x ( 1 + 0.05 /12) ^120 = $131,761

7 0
3 years ago
You short-sell 200 shares of Tuckerton Trading Co., now selling for $50 per share. What is your maximum possible loss
pentagon [3]

Answer:

Unlimited

Explanation:

GIven that:

You short-sell 200 shares of Tuckerton Trading Co

now selling for $50 per share.

If a short-sell occurs on a trade, the lower the share price, the higher the profit your are liable to achieve but if short-sell occurs and the share price is higher, then the  more loss you're going to accumulate.

From the question, the lowest possible share price is zero and the highest possible share price is infinity since there is no stop loss.

∴

The maximum possible loss = 200 × 50( 1 - infinity share price)

= Unlimited loss

5 0
3 years ago
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