Answer:
Department M
Manufacturing overhead rate = $600,000/200,000 hrs = $3/hr
Department A
Manufacturing overhead rate = $400,000/800,000 hrs = $0.5/hr
Manufacturing overhead cost allocated:
Department M = $3 x 8,000 = $24,000
Department A = $0.5 x 12,000 = $6,000
Total manufacturing cost allocated = $30,000
Explanation:
This relates to overhead absorption. The manufacturing overhead rate is calculated as budgeted manufacturing overhead divided by budgeted direct labour hour.
Manufacturing overhead allocated = manufacturing overhead rate x actual labour hour for each department for the job.
Answer:
a. ($35,000)
Explanation:
The computation of the financial advantage or disadvantage of dropping product V860 is shown below:
= Sales - Variable cost - Avoidable fixed manufacturing - Avoidable fixed selling
= $150,000 - $72,000 - $30,000 - $13,000
= $35,000
This $35,000 would be a financial disadvantage and the fixed cost should not be considered as it is not held for decision making purpose
Hence, the correct option is a
Individual activities and their durations are developed during the planning phase of the project life cycle.
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- An executive team can utilize a business plan as an internal roadmap to maintain focus on and progress toward short- and long-term goals.
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brainly.com/question/27989299
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Answer:
r = 11.55%
Explanation:
Given that,
Annual dividend paid last week, D1 = $2.50
Dividend growth rate, g = 8%
current price of common stock = $76
Stock price = D1 ÷ (r - g)
$76 = [$2.50 × (1 + 8%)] ÷ (r - 8%)
$76 = 2.7 ÷ (r - 8%)
(r - 8%) = 0.0355
r = 0.0355 + 0.08
= 0.1155 × 100
= 11.55%
Therefore,
Return, r = 11.55%
Answer:
The assets should have increased by 34,000 during the same period.
Explanation:
Considering the accounting equation as follows:
Assets = Liabilities + Equity
and given the information that:
liabilities + 55,000
equity - 21,000
net change in the right side: 34,000
The assets should have increased by 34,000 during the same period.
