Answer:
a.
Explanation:
Based on all the answers that were provided the statement that is correct is that the bid price in a hostile takeover is generally above the price before the takeover attempt is announced, because otherwise there would be no incentive for the stockholders to sell to the hostile bidder and the takeover attempt would probably fail. Which pretty much explains itself, except for that a hostile takeover is when a person or another business tries to purchase a business by going directly to the shareholders themselves.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
$ 226.04
Explanation:
Given:
Paying fund, FV = $ 30000
Interest rate, i = 2%
Time, t = 10 years
Now,
![\textup{PMT}=\textup{FV}[\frac{i}{(1+i)^n-1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Ctextup%7BPMT%7D%3D%5Ctextup%7BFV%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7Bi%7D%7B%281%2Bi%29%5En-1%7D%5D)
since, the payment is made monthly
thus,
n = 10 × 12 = 120 months
i = 2% / 12 = 0.02 / 12
on substituting the values in the above equation, we get
![PMT={30000}[\frac{\frac{0.02}{12}}{(1+{\frac{0.02}{12}})^{120}-1}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=PMT%3D%7B30000%7D%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cfrac%7B0.02%7D%7B12%7D%7D%7B%281%2B%7B%5Cfrac%7B0.02%7D%7B12%7D%7D%29%5E%7B120%7D-1%7D%5D)
or
PMT = $ 226.04
Answer:
Advantage
Explanation:
According to my research on different business strategies, I can say that based on the information provided within the question Deep Blue is attempting to gain a competitive Advantage by stealing it's competitor's key employees. This is because it is taking away trained employees from their competitors who now have to spend time and money hiring and training new employees for that position, which will take a long time since the new employees will probably not have the experience that Gina had.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Answer:
D. 25.80 percent
Explanation:
The formula to compute the effective annual rate of the loan is shown below:
= (1 + annual interest rate ÷ periods)^ number of period - 1
= (1 + 23% ÷ 52)^52 - 1
= (1 + 00442)^52 - 1
= 1.00442^52 - 1
= 1.2579618615 - 1
= 25.80%
There are 52 weeks in a year and we considered the same in the above calculation
