Answer:
D : $88,800
Explanation:
<u>Cost of goods manufactured :</u>
Direct Material used in production $
21,300
Indirect Material used in production $ 3,700
Direct Labour $
34,100
Direct Labour $ 5,900
Manufacturing overhead <u> $ 16,600 </u>
Total Manufacturing cost $ 75100
Add:Beginning Work in process inventory $7,200
Less: Ending Work in process inventory <u>$ 0 </u>
Cost of Goods Manufactured <u>$88,800</u>
Answer:
less desirable to other investors
Explanation:
<u>Given</u>: Current fixed coupon rate 5%
Market rate of interest 5%
New Market Rate of Interest 6%
Value of a bond is inversely related to economy interest rate or the yield to maturity (YTM). Value of a bond is expressed by the following equation:

wherein, C = Coupon rate of interest
YTM = Market Rate of Interest or interest rate in the economy or investor's expectation
n= Years to maturity
RV = Redemption value
In the given case, C = YTM i.e par value bond. When ytm rises to 6%, the value of the bond shall fall making such a bond less attractive since it represents lower coupon payments than investor expectations.
Thus, now the bond would be less desirable to other investors.
Answer:
The answer is option A) The short run recommendation for a monopolistic firm is to remain at the current output level
Explanation:
In the short run, monopolistic firms could record losses but still continue to run in anticipation of a sustainable profit in the long run.
A self-employed profit-maximizing consultant specializing in monopolies understands that the short run losses experienced in a monopoly is also an advantage in that it reduces the participation of more players in the same industry/ market segment.
The best recommendation would be to remain at the current output level during the short run to cut losses, sustain patronage and then develop a long term strategy that will guarantee profitability in the long run.
Answer:
4.76%
Explanation:
The requirement in this question is determining the discount rate which gives the same present value in both cases since discount rates discount future cash flows to present value terms.
PV of a pertuity=annual cash flow/discount rate
PV of a pertuity=$17,000/r
PV of ordinary annuity=annual cash flow*(1-(1+r)^-n/r
PV of ordinary annuity=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
$17,000/r=$30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18/r
multiply boths side by r
17000=30,000*(1-(1+r)^-18
divide both sides by 30000
17000/30000=1-(1+r)^-18
0.566666667=1-(1+r)^-18
by rearraging the equation we have the below
(1+r)^-18=1-0.566666667
(1+r)^-18=0.433333333
divide indices on both sides by -18
1+r=(0.433333333)^(1/-18)
1+r=1.047554315
r=1.047554315-1
r=4.76%