I think the answer is problem solver (but I’m not 100% sure)
Answer:
e. As they are generally defined, money market transactions involve debt securities with maturities of less than one year.
Explanation:
Statement E, As they are generally defined, money market transactions involve debt securities with maturities of less than one year is true.
Statement A is not true. It is primary market transaction.
Statement B is not true. Individuals can also participate in derivatives market transactions.
Statement C is not true. The IPO market is a subset of the primary market.
Statement D is not true. It is a direct transfer of capital.
Answer:
D. banks reliance on long term funding; and increased use of non-standard mortgages such as fixed rate, 30- year mortgages.
Explanation:
Dr. Bernanke argued that financial crisis is due to the banks involving in non standard mortgages which are fixed rate mortgages but they are not regulated. The bank provides loans and mortgages to people based on the standard regulations which need to be followed. They financial crisis took place when the mortgages were provided on non standard terms.
The few rule the many. Hope this helped, have a great day! :D
Answer:
n= 6.11 years
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Present value= $40,000
Future value= $20,000
Decrease rate= 0.12
<u>To calculate the number of years for the car to reach a value of $20,000; we need to use the following formula:</u>
n= ln(FV/PV) / ln(1+i)
n= ln(20,000/40,000) / ln(1.12)
n= 6.11 years
