Answer: A, 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
he is simply using 1 cup of bs for each cup of ws so when you do it its i cup of ws then its hald of 1 bs
I believe you may have the order incorrect. If we were looking at g(f(x)) the answer would be 47. We would get this by sticking the 3 in for x in f(x) and solving, which would give us 48. We would then stick that answer in for x in the g(x), giving us 47.
In its current order the answer would be 28.
A.
Because the negatives cancel each other out to make a positive
