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avanturin [10]
3 years ago
8

WILL GIVE BRAINIEST AND POINTS :

Mathematics
1 answer:
vladimir1956 [14]3 years ago
6 0

m \angle LKN + m \angle \boxed{KLM} = \boxed{180} because they are \text{supplementary angles}

This is true of any parallelogram. The adjacent angles of any parallelogram are supplementary, meaning they add to 180 degrees. You can use the same side interior angle theorem here as well.

------------------

Because KA cuts angle K in half, and LA does the same to angle L, this means that we're dividing everything by 2 in that equation at the top of the page. So we have,

\frac{m \angle LKN + m \angle KLM}{2} = \frac{180}{2}

and that turns into

m \angle LKA + m\angle KLA = 90

which tells us that angle KAL must be 90 so that the three angles of triangle KAL add to 180 degrees. For any right triangle, the acute angles are complementary, meaning they add to 90 degrees.

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FrozenT [24]

Answer:

  (c)  -3.8, 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The solutions to the equation f(x) = g(x) are the values of x where the function values are equal. These are the x-coordinates of the points where the graphs of y=f(x) and y=g(x) intersect each other.

<h3>Points of intersection</h3>

The points where the graphs cross can be estimated to be ...

  (-3.8, 6.5) and (3, -6)

The x-coordinates of these points are the solutions to the equation:

  x = -3.8, 3

8 0
2 years ago
Erika had three pieces of ribbon . Each piece is 25 yards long. She needs to cut pieces that are 22 inches long . What is the gr
Kisachek [45]
B. 120 because you cant glue the ribbon together, simply multiply 25 by 3 multiply that by 12 divide that by 22 then multiply that by 3

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following solutions solves the system?
katen-ka-za [31]
The answer is C

(1,-1)
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Is 1/3 bigger than 33.3%
Mkey [24]

33.33 percentage

Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply a fraction by 100%

to convert it to percentage form.

1/3= 100%=33.33%

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From Euler’s relation eiθ = cosθ + isinθ,
adelina 88 [10]

Answer:

(a) The graphic representation is in the attached figure.

(b) \cos(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta}}{2}.

(c) \sin(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta}}{2i}.

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) Given a complex number e^{i\theta} we know, from Euler's formula that e^{i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta). So, it is not difficult to notice that

|e^{i\theta}|^2 = \cos^2(\theta)+\sin^2(\theta) =1

so it is on the unit circumference. Also, notice that the Cartesian representation of the complex number is (\cos(\theta), \sin(\theta)).

Now,

e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(-\theta) = \cos(\theta)-i\sin(\theta).

Notice that e^{-i\theta} has the same modulus that e^{i\theta}, so it is on the unit circumference. Beside, its Cartesian representation is (\cos(\theta), -\sin(\theta)).

So, the points (\cos(\theta), \sin(\theta)) and (\cos(\theta), -\sin(\theta)) are symmetric with respect to the X-axis. All this can be checked in the attached figure.

(b) Notice that

e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) + \cos(\theta)-i\sin(\theta) = 2\cos(\theta)

Then,

\cos(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} + e^{-i\theta}}{2}.

(c) Notice that

e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta} = \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) - \cos(\theta)+i\sin(\theta) = 2i\sin(\theta)

Then,

\sin(\theta) = \frac{e^{i\theta} - e^{-i\theta}}{2i}.

7 0
3 years ago
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