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Novosadov [1.4K]
3 years ago
15

Which function has an inverse function?

Mathematics
1 answer:
daser333 [38]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: Option B

Step-by-step explanation:

By definition, only those functions that are one to one have an inverse function.

A function is one by one if there are not two different input values, x_1 and x_2, that have the same output value y

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{|x+3|}{5}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=2  f(x)= \frac{|2+3|}{5}=1\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=8  f(x)= \frac{|-8+3|}{5}=1\ \ ,\ y=1

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{x^4}{7}+ 27  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{(1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{(-1)^4}{7}+27\ ,\ \ y=\frac{190}{7}

Note that the function f(x)= \frac{1}{x^2}  is not a one-to-one function

When x=1 f(x)= \frac{1}{(1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

When x=-1  f(x)= \frac{1}{(-1)^2}\ ,\ \ y=1

Then the answer is the option B.

You can verify that The function f (x) = x ^ 5-3 is a one-to-one function and therefore its inverse is a function

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