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pshichka [43]
3 years ago
6

Sixty-second Avenue Inc. expects to earn $5,700,000 this year. The company currently has 790,000 shares outstanding, and the sha

res have a per-share market price of $21. Assuming that Sixty-second Avenue’s price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio remains constant and its earnings are unaffected by a share repurchase transaction, then the company’s expected market price per share—if it repurchases 90,000 shares at the current market price—should be
Business
1 answer:
11111nata11111 [884]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The company's expected market price per share After the repurchase would $23.68

Explanation:

In order to calculate the company's expected market price per share After the repurchase we would have to calculate first the Price-to-earnings ratio ( P/E ratio ) as follows:

Price-to-earnings ratio ( P/E ratio )= Market price per share / Earnings per share

Earnings per share = Earnings/ number of shares outstanding =$ 5,700,000 / $790,000 = $ 7.21

Therefore, Price -to-earnings ratio = $ 21 / $ 7.21 = 2.91

If 90,000 shares are repurchased, Therefore Earnings per share =$ 5,700,000 / $700,000 = $ 8.14

Therefore, the company's expected market price per share After the repurchase=$ 8.14 x 2.91 = $23.68

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Discuss the possible causes of change in Shoprite​
velikii [3]

Answer:

Economical factors, company reasons, innovative leadership, business growth, and competitor actions are common causes of business change.

Explanation:

The economic factors influencing business activities

In a country concerned with the production, distribution, and use of goods and services, the economy includes all activities.

The economic environment has a major impact on companies. Consumer expenditure affects prices, investment decisions, and the number of employees employed by enterprises.

In four main ways, the economic climate affects companies:

  • unemployment
  • Consumer income change levels
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6 0
3 years ago
Activity based costing _____________
Ilia_Sergeevich [38]

Answer:

1. groups costs into meaningful buckets that are then distributed based on the activity or product they support.

Explanation:

Activity based costing basically categorizes various overheads into different activities, that leads to charge of overheads based on different activities.

In this manner overheads that shall be charged on some standard products based on the activities involved is charged accordingly, and not based on standard overhead allocation rate.

Basically the overheads are divided into various activities and then distributed  to each product based on the volume of activity in the manufacturing process of such activity.

7 0
3 years ago
G MC Qu. 87 When is a goodwill impairment loss... When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized?
marin [14]

Answer:

Goodwill impairment occurs when a company decides to pay more than book value for the acquisition of an asset.

An impairment is recognized as a loss on the income statement and as a reduction in the goodwill account. The amount of the loss is the difference between the current fair market value of the asset and its carrying value or amount.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
At the beginning of fiscal 2017, Wooster Company acquired a small savings and loan association for $102 million. The book value
bija089 [108]

Answer:

C. $17.25 million

Explanation:

In case of an acquisition, the assets are valued at their fair value and we will also include all unrecorded liabilities. Goodwill will be the excess payment over the net assets of the company. Excess fair value of land means that assets would increase by that amount to arrive at their fair value. Also, We have to include unrecorded liabilities in the total liabilities

Net Assets = Fair value of assets - Total liabilities

Or, Net Assets = (Book value of assets + Excess Fair value of land) - (Book value of liabilities + unrecorded liabilities)

Or, Net Assets = ($261 million + $3 million) - ($172.50 million + $6.75 million) = $84.75 million

Amount paid to acquire = $102 million

Goodwill = $102 million - $84.75 million = $17.25 million

4 0
4 years ago
Julie has just retired. Her company's retirement program has two options as to how retirement benefits can be received. Under th
olchik [2.2K]

Answer:

First option will be recommended.

Explanation:

To determine which option to be taken, we calculate the net present value each option generates. The option generating higher NPV should be recommended.

- Net present value of first option = Lump sum receipt = $150,000.

- Net present value of second option will be found by discounting cash flows at investing rate 12% and calculated as followed:

 +  Present value of 20 equal annual payment of $14,000 + Present value of $60,000 paid in 20 years = (14,000/12%) x [ 1 - 1.12^(-20)] + 60,000/1.12^20 = $110,792.

As net present value of the first option is higher than the second option, first option will be recommended.

8 0
4 years ago
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