Answer:
The patient would receive 1.05mg of the drug weekly.
Step-by-step explanation:
First step: How many mcg of the drug would the patient receive daily?
The problem states that he takes three doses of 50-mcg a day. So
1 dose - 50mcg
3 doses - x mcg
x = 50*3
x = 150 mcg.
He takes 150mcg of the drug a day.
Second step: How many mcg of the drug would the patient receive weekly?
A week has 7 days. He takes 150mcg of the drug a day. So:
1 day - 150mcg
7 days - x mcg
x = 150*7
x = 1050mcg
He takes 1050mcg of the drug a week.
Final step: Conversion of 1050 mcg to mg
Each mg has 1000 mcg. How many mg are there in 1050 mcg? So
1mg - 1000 mcg
xmg - 1050mcg
1000x = 1050
x = 1.05mg
The patient would receive 1.05mg of the drug weekly.
We will use order of operations (PEMDAS) to solve this.
1.) 33+4(52-42) This is our equation. So, first we are gonna subtract 42 from 52.
2.) 33+4(10) Now that we did that, we are gonna add 4 to 33.
3.) 37(10) Lastly we are gonna multiply 37 by 10.
The answer is gonna be 370. If this helped, maybe consider giving me brainliest :)
ANSWER
EXPLANATION
We write the function such that both the numerator and the denominator are prime.
An example of a rational function with no vertical asymptotes and no holes is
For the above rational function, the denominator is never zero, so there are no vertical asymptotes.
Also the highest common factor for the numerator and the denominator is 1 so there are no holes.
Answer:
60 minutes
Step-by-step explanation:
to find this, we will first determine how long it takes austin to run one mile.
18 miles / 180 minutes
1 mile / 10 minutes
it takes austin to run 10 minutes to run 1 mile
now, we will multiply the number of minutes it takes by 6 to find how long it takes austin to run 6 miles.
1 mile / 10 minutes
6 miles / 60 minutes
it takes austin 60 minutes to run 6 miles
