Answer:
Since the FICA tax is split equally between employers and employees, we can conclude that the incidence of this tax is also equally shared.
a. True
Explanation:
The incidence of the FICA tax refers to the extent to which an individual employee or the employing organization suffers from the imposition of the FICA tax. In the final analysis, the incidence may not be borne by the organization but consumers of its goods and services, depending on the elasticity of demand. Employers and employees usually split the FICA tax equally. The FICA (Federal Insurance Contribution Act) refers to the federally mandated tax for Social Security and Medicare.
It is true that Opportunity costs at a manufacturing company are not part of manufacturing overhead.
<h3>What is
Opportunity costs ?</h3>
Opportunity costs can be described as the term that represent the potential benefits which individual, investor, misses out in the process of choosing one alternative over another.
Because opportunity costs are unseen can be easily overlooked, therefore, in this case, It is true that Opportunity costs at a manufacturing company are not part of manufacturing overhead.
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Answer:
e. market-share analysis.
Explanation:
e. market-share analysis because it is not only dependent on sales. Other factors are other industries markets total sales . It is not directly associated with analyzing sales organization effectiveness. Sales organization is responsible for selling and obtaining maximum profits. Optimum profits through least investments is their primary objective. Market share analysis is dependent on a particular period and the sales during that period ,target company's sales and total market sales.
<span>Too find he lowest units price you divide the price per pound by the number of pounds. At the first store it is roughly 44 cents per unit. The second store is about 33 cents per unit. The lower unit price is 33 cents per pound at the second store.</span>
Answer:
The balance in the Sinking Fund immediately after repayment of the loan will be $2,133.19
Explanation:
Hi, John will pay the loan by paying the yearly interest and the rest is going to go to the sinking fund, so, if he has $1,627.45 and the annual interest of the loan are $1,000, he will be depositing $627.45 into the sinking fund for ten years. Therefore, the future value of the annual deposits of the sinking can be found by using the following formula.
Where:
A = equal annual savings into the sinking fund (that is $627.45)
r = effective rate of the sinking fund (14%)
n = 10 years
Everything should look like this.
Now, this is the balance after 10 years, but remember that John has to pay the loan, which is $10,000 (not $11,000 because John pays the interest of the loan and then deposits the balance into the sinking fund). Therefore, the balance after repaying the loan is $12,133.19 - $10,000 = $2,133.19.
Best of luck.
