Answer:
$0
Explanation:
The computation of the value of firm profit is shown below:
As we know that
Profit = Total revenue - Total cost
where,
Total revenue is
= 10 widgets × $15
= $150
And,
Total cost = Variable cost + Fixed cost
= 10 widgets × $13 + $20
= $130 + $20
= $150
So, the profit is
= $150 - $150
= $0
Hence the firm is in break-even point where there is no profit or no loss
Answer: $1639.3
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that Bank A quotes a bid rate of $0.300 and an ask rate of $0.305 for the Malaysian ringgit (MYR) and that bank B quotes a bid rate of $0.306 and an ask rate of $0.310 for the ringgit.
The profit for an investor that has $500,000 available to conduct locational arbitrage goes thus:
Purchasing Malaysian ringgit (MYR) from bank A at the ask rate will be:
= $500,000/$0.305
= 1,639,344.3
Selling the Malaysian ringgit (MYR) at bank B based on the ask rate will be:
= 1,639,344.3 × 0.306
= $501,639.3
The profit for an investor that has $500,000 available to conduct locational arbitrage will be:
= $501,639.3 - $500,000
= $1639.3
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Is top management committed to the study?
Explanation:
Market research is the process that includes the actions of identification, collection, analysis and dissemination of information with the purpose of improving marketing decision making. Its implementation occurs basically for two reasons:
1. to solve problems, for example, determine the potential of a market.
2. to identify problems, for example, to know why a product does not have the expected consumption. In essence, it seeks to meet the customer thus complying with the first premise of marketing.
That is why managers and researchers continually focus on the search for those practices that will allow them to improve the organization and direction of their processes and therefore increase their likelihood of success.
1.00000 CNY = 0.14418 USD
20 CNY == 2.88 USD
Nowadays, the name "Yuan" typically refers to the main unit of the People's Republic of China's currency, the renminbi (RMB). [Banknotes in RMB range in value from one Yuan to one hundred Yuan. Particularly in international contexts, it is also used as a synonym for that money; the ISO 4217 standard code for the renminbi is CNY, which stands for "Chinese yuan." (Using sterling to refer to British currency and the pound as the unit of account is a similar situation.)
Yuán literally means a "round thing" or "round coin" in Standard (Mandarin) Chinese. A silver round coin known as the yuan was used throughout the Qing Dynasty.
To learn more about Chinese yuan from the given link.
brainly.com/question/14350438
#SPJ4
Answer:
Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000
Real overhead= 38,000
Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH
Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated