I would listen to the team’s differences and finally come to an agreement that will be the best benefit for everyone.
Answer:
Risk Premium is 10%
Explanation:
Government treasuries represent risk free rate of return.
[tex]Risk Premium=R_{m}-R_{f}/tex] ,
where, [tex]R_{f} = Risk\ Free\ Rate\ Of\ Return/[tex]
[tex]R_{m} = Market\ Rate\ Of\ Return/[tex]
Risk Premium = 15 - 5 = 10%
Risk Premium is defined as return earned on market portfolio in excess of rate of return earned on risk free assets such as government treasury bonds.
So, Risk Premium refers to the compensation an investor expects to earn for assuming higher risk by investing in market portfolio instead of investing his money in risk free class of assets.
Answer:
The answer is: D) A 401(k) is controlled and monitored by an employer, and an IRA is controlled by the investing individual.
Explanation:
A 401(k) is sponsored and controlled by an employer. The employer decides where the money is going to be invested. Sometimes the employer may match some of the employees' contributions. The employer can also take loans or hardship withdrawals from the 401(k) funds.
While IRA accounts are held by custodians which are banks or brokerage firms.
Following are the correct terms for the descriptions provided.
1. Coverage
2. Risk Management
3. Insurer
4. Premium
5. Liability
6. Policy
7. Actuary
8. Claim
9. Deductible
10. Insurance
<h3>
Explanation</h3>
The correct answers for the explanation given in the question is described above.
An Insurance Company is called an Insurer, its products are called policy, they provide coverage for loss, this is a type of risk management, a person calculating all the figures is known as an Actuary, monthly or annually premiums are payable and claim can be made once the insured condition is met.
<h3 />
Therefore the answers are following
1. Coverage
2. Risk Management
3. Insurer
4. Premium
5. Liability
6. Policy
7. Actuary
8. Claim
9. Deductible
10. Insurance
Learn more about Business at brainly.com/question/26538066
Answer:
1. The company's manufacturing cycle time is 17.4 days.
2. The company's manufacturing cycle efficiency is 0.40
Explanation:
1. Manufacturing cycle time
= Process time + inspection time + move time + wait time
= 7 + 0.6 + 4.8 + 5
= 17.4 days
Therefore, The company's manufacturing cycle time is 17.4 days.
2. manufacturing cycle efficiency
= process time/manufacturing cycle time
= 7/17.4
= 0.40
Therefore, The company's manufacturing cycle efficiency is 0.40