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Ket [755]
3 years ago
5

Select the correct answer.

Mathematics
1 answer:
lesya692 [45]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

i think it is C.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Emma Weber purchased a bedroom set with an installment loan that has an APR of 12%. The bedroom set sells for $2,650. The store
ipn [44]

Answer:

$520.28

Step-by-step explanation:

The finance charge is the amount that Emma will pay in order to cover the processing costs of the bedroom set. In this case it would be $520.28. You have first find the down payment cost ($384) and then find how much she needs to pay each month to cover the rest of the cost ($66.34) and multiply it by the 42 months to get $2786.28. Add the down payment onto that and subtract the original cost and you will get your finance charge of $520.28. Hope this helps!

MARK ME BRAINIEST

6 0
4 years ago
Solve this inequality ​
8090 [49]
X is greater than or equal to -5
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
  • If he is given one king and one ace.

Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plz help i need help
Nataliya [291]

Answer: what the is dis sorry dont know

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
write a point-slope equation for the line that passes through the point (6,8) and is parallel to the line given by y=-5x+4
VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

  y -8 = -5(x -6)

Step-by-step explanation:

The point-slope form of the equation for a line is generally written ...

  y -k = m(x -h)

for slope m and point (h, k).

The slope of your parallel line is the same as the slope of the reference line, -5. So your equation is ...

  y -8 = -5(x -6)

3 0
3 years ago
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