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mezya [45]
3 years ago
12

Suppose that in the second year her average total cost per dog is $35 and that $20 of that is associated with the variable cost.

She finds that the market price for dog grooming has fallen, however, to $30 per dog. Should she stay open or close the business? Briefly explain your answer.
Business
1 answer:
jok3333 [9.3K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

She should stay open, because the revenue of from dog grooming ($30 per dog), is still high enough to cover her variable cost of $20 per dog, even though she is operating at a loss.

Explanation:

Profit = Revenue - Total costs

Total costs = Fixed costs + variable costs

Profit = $30 - $35 = -$5 per dog

This shows she is operating at a loss of $5 per dog.

If a company does not make enough revenue to cover its total costs, then it is operating at a loss.

However such a company must consider its variable cost before deciding whether to shut down.

A company should only shut down if it is unable to make enough revenue to cover its variable cost.

If a company is operating at a loss but can at least cover its variable cost, then it should stay open at least in the short run.

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he Talley Corporation had a taxable income of $345,000 from operations after all operating costs but before (1) interest charges
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

(a) The firm's Income tax liability is $59,771.25.

(b) The firm's after-tax income is $233,478.75.

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows

The Talley Corporation had a taxable income of $345,000 from operations after all operating costs but before (1) interest charges of $69,000, (2) dividends received of $17,250, (3) dividends paid of $20,700, and (4) income taxes. Its federal tax rate was 21% (ignore any possible state corporate taxes). Recall 50% of dividends received are tax exempt. What are the firm's income tax liability and its after-tax income?

The explanation to the anwer is now given as follows:

Adjusted taxable income = Income after operation - Interest charges + Taxable dividend received ................. (1)

Where;

Income after operation = $345,0000

Interest charges = $69,000

Taxable dividend received = 50% * $17,250 = $8,625

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Adjusted taxable income = $345,000 - $69,000 + $8,625 = $284,625

(a) Income tax liability = Adjusted taxable income *  Tax rate = $284,625 * 21% = $59,771.25

(b) After-tax income = (Adjusted taxable income - Income tax liability) + (50% of dividend received) = ($284,625 - $59,771.25) +  (50% * $17,250) = $224,853.75 + $8,625 = $233,478.75

3 0
3 years ago
Fill the blank ("__")
klemol [59]

The free market economy is the one where the buyers & sellers should freely select to buy or make.

The following information related to the free market economy is:

  • It should depend upon the supply & demand having no government interference.
  • In this, the buyers & sellers have the right to select for making or buying whatever they want.

Therefore we can conclude that the free market economy is the one where the buyers & sellers should freely select to buy or make.

Learn more about the economy here: brainly.com/question/11905095

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a bank has loaned money to two businesses: a trustworthy computer manufacturer and a risky mining venture. Unfortun
Vladimir [108]

Answer:

The situation is called insolvency. bank is unable to pay to depositor.

Explanation:

The situation is called insolvency. insolvency is refer to the situation when debtor is unable return its debt.  The same is happened in the given situation. In the above case due to not paid by manufacturing unit, bank is unable to pay to depositor.

Insolvency is refer to that critical condition when debtor unable to pay amount to depositor. In the above given case even if bank want to sell its all assets it cannot cover its liabilities.

3 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2017, Ivanhoe Company had $1,313,000 of short-term debt in the form of notes payable due February 2, 2018. On Ja
gizmo_the_mogwai [7]

Answer:

They should be reported in 2 different parts, first under current liabilities as:

  • Notes payable $269,000

Then under long term liabilities:

  • Notes payable expected to be refinanced $1,044,000

Explanation:

the total short term notes payable on December 31 = $1,313,000

  • $1,044,000 were paid off by issuing common stocks, so that portion of the debt must be reported as notes payable expected to be refinanced (or refinanced debt)
  • the remaining $269,000 which were paid using cash reserves must be reported as current notes payable

5 0
3 years ago
The following statement was made by the vice president of finance of The Electric Company: "The managers of a company should use
RideAnS [48]

Answer:

Check the following explanation.

Explanation:

The goals of managers and shareholders are not always aligned. Agency theory suggests  this misalignment creates the need for costly monitoring through compensation contracts.

To align the goals of the two parties,compensation contracts should be designed to motivate the executive to make decisions that will not only increase his or her wealth, but will also increase shareholder wealth. Steps taken to increase shareholder wealth should be reflected in improved firm performance.Including both components in the contracts helps ensure the decisions of the executive are linked to various time horizons.

Shortterm components motivate the executive to make decisions that have an immediate affect on the firm. Long-term components are necessary to lengthen the decision horizon of the executive and enhance the likelihood of continued improvement in firm value. The long-term incentives in these  contracts can be based on improved shareholder wealth as well as improved firm performance.

8 0
3 years ago
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