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slamgirl [31]
3 years ago
6

One form of hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive gene. assume that a man with hemophilia marries a phenotypically norm

al woman whose father had hemophilia. what is the probability that their first son will have hemophilia?
Biology
2 answers:
kozerog [31]3 years ago
8 0
The mother inherited her father's X chromosome so her genotype is XHXh and she produces XH and Xh gametes. 

<span>The father's genotype is XhY and he produces Xh and Y gametes. </span>

<span>The possible outcomes are XHXh normal female (carrier), XhXh (affected female), XHY (normal son) XhY (affected son) </span>

<span>So the probability of an affected daugher is 1.4</span>
kherson [118]3 years ago
3 0
When a haemophilic carrier female marries a haemiphilic man then due to ther genotypes 
 
Xc=carrier of haemophilia
Xn=normal 
Y=dont carry haemophilic genes
so here we go!
        XcY         cross with      XcXn
 
 genotypes of ther offsprings
    1=XcXc      
    2=XcXn   
    3=XcY
    4=XnY     
so from whole 4 there is 50% parobability 

           
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