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3 years ago

The following selected transactions were completed by Fasteners Inc. Co., a supplier of buttons and zippers for clothing:

Business

1 answer:

Reil [10]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

20Y3

Nov. 21 :

Debit Notes receivable $66,000

Credit Accounts receivable $66,000

<em>(To recognize notes receivable iro past due account)</em>

Dec. 31:

Debit Interest revenue $161.33

Credit Interest receivable $161.33

<em>(To record accrued interest on notes receivable)</em>

Jan. 20:

Debit Cash $66,880

Credit Notes receivable $66,000

Credit Interest receivable $880

<em>(To record payment of note and interest on Nov. 21 notes)</em>

Explanation:

Note receivable is a promissory note with a written promise made by the borrower to the lender (payee) to pay a certain, definite sum at a specified date.

Interest revenue on the notes is calculated as: Principal x Interest Rate x Time

In this case, the total interest expense is $66,000 x 8%/12 x 2 months = $880.

Total interest expense to the Company as at December 31 is therefore $880 / 60 days x 11 days = $161.33.

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William pays his $500 premium every 6 months for automobile insurance with collision coverage. His deductible is $750. William c

snow_lady [41]

William will pay a total of $750 out of pocket for both cars to be fixed.

The other car is covered by the property damage portion of his insurance, so it is covered 100% by the insurance company and there is no deductible or amount that William needs to pay. William’s car will be covered by the collision portion of his insurance. He is responsible for paying the $750 deductible and the insurance company will pay the remaining $50.

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3 years ago

A common stock pays an annual dividend per share of $1.80. The risk-free rate is 5%, and the risk premium for this stock is 4%.

ArbitrLikvidat [17]

Answer:

The value of the stock today is $20

Explanation:

Using the CAPM equation, we first calculate the required rate of retunr on the stock.

The equation for CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * rpM

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate
rpM is the risk premium on market
Beta * rpM is the risk premium on stock

r = 0.05 + 0.04

r = 0.09 or 9%

The value of the stock can be calculated using the zero growth model of DDM. The DDM values the stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. As the dividend from the stock is expected to remain constant through out to an indefinite period, the value of the stock today is,

P0 = Dividend / r

P0 = 1.8 / 0.09

P0 = $20

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3 years ago

Which of the following actions would likely raise life insurance premiums?

Dafna1 [17]

Living a non-smoker its b

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direc

astraxan [27]

Answer:

Under allocation= 1,000 underallocated

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Dukes Corporation used a predetermined overhead rate this year of $2 per direct labor-hour, based on an estimate of 20,000 direct labor-hours to be worked during the year. Actual costs and activity during the year were: Actual manufacturing overhead cost incurred $ 38,000 Actual direct labor-hours worked 18,500

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 2*18,500= $37,000

Real overhead= 38,000

Over/under allocation= real MOH - allocated MOH

Under allocation= 38,000 - 37,000= 1,000 underallocated

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3 years ago

Quizlet, In a security review meeting, you are asked to calculate the single loss expectancy (SLE) of an enterprise building wor

sergiy2304 [10]

The formula that should be use to calculate the SLE will be SLE = 100,000,000 × 0.75

<h3>What is the Single-loss expectancy?</h3>

Single-loss expectancy is the monetary value expected from the occurrence of a risk on an asset. This is related to risk management and risk assessment where the exposure factor is represented in the impact of the risk over the asset, or percentage of asset lost.

The Single Loss Expectancy is used for Risk Management and it is the expected monetary loss when a risk occurs.

The Single Loss Expectancy is related to Asset Value a exposure Factor. The formula used to compute the SLE is single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value (AV) × Exposure Factor (EF)

In the given problem the asset value of the enterprise building is $100,000,000 & the exposure factor 75%.

So the formula used to calculate the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is

SLE = 100,000,000 × 0.75.

Learn more about single loss expectancy on:

brainly.com/question/17088011

#SPJ1

Complete question:

a. 100,000,000 * 0.75/.01

b. 100,000,000/100 * 0.75

c. 100,000,000/0.75 * 100

d. 100,000,000 * 0.75

7 0

2 years ago