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sweet [91]
3 years ago
15

Jackie has 10 groups of pennies with 3 pennies in each group. Carlos has 5 groups of pennies with 100 pennies in each group. Who

has more pennies? Explain how you know?
Mathematics
2 answers:
Tcecarenko [31]3 years ago
8 0
Answer=Carlos

If Jackie has 10 groups, with 3 in each groups, she has 30 total pennies.

10*3=30 pennies

If Carlos has 5 groups with 100 in each group, then Carlos has 500 pennies.

5*100=500 pennies

500 pennies is more than 30 pennies, so Carlos has more pennies
Softa [21]3 years ago
3 0
Carlos because he has 500 pennie compared to the 30 pennies
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Tera buys 10 pencils for $1.99.<br> About how much $ does each pencil<br> cost?
True [87]

Answer:

19 cents or 0.199

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it helped!

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In your own words, describe how to graph the linear equation y = -1/5x + 3. Step by step
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

Steps given below and graph is attached.

Step-by-step explanation:

First Step:

Find out y-intercept by substituting x=0

y=-\frac{1}{5}\times 0+3\\\\y=3\\\\Hence\ line\ passes\ through\ (0,3).

Second Step:

Find out x-intercept by substituting y=0.

0=-\frac{1}{5}x+3\\\\\frac{1}{5}x=3\\\\x=15\\\\Hence\ line\ passes\ through\ (15,0).

Third Step:

Draw a line passing through (0,3)\ and\ (15,0).

Graph is attached.

7 0
3 years ago
Need help!!!! ASAP!! Plzz
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

XV = 4.75

Step-by-step explanation:

TV/WV = UV/XV (similarity theorem)

TW = 9

WV = 3

UV = 19

TV = 9 + 3 = 12

XV = ?

Plug in the values

12/3 = 19/XV

4 = 19/XV

XV × 4 = 19

XV = 19/4

XV = 4.75

5 0
2 years ago
there are 6 brown, 5 blue, and 2 orange marbles in a hat what is the probability of picking 2 orange marbles in a row without re
Bess [88]
You have a probability of 7% to pick out the first orange marble then you have a probability of 8% to pick out the second orange.
4 0
2 years ago
A teacher was interested in finding out whether a special study program would increase the scores of students on a national exam
bija089 [108]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

Going by the first attached image below we reject H_o against  H_1 if obs.T > t_{\alpha /2;n-1}

here obs.T=1.879

\therefore obs.T \ngtr 2.447=t_{0.025;6}

we accept H_o:\mu _{1}=\mu_{2} at 5% level of significance.

i.e there is no sufficient evidence to indicate that the special study program is more effective at 5% level of significance.

1.

this problem is simillar to the previous one except the alternative hypothesis.

Let X_i's denote the bonuses given by female managers and Y_i's denote the bonuses given by male managers.

we assume that X_i \sim N(\mu _{1},\sigma _{1}^{2}) Y_i \sim N(\mu _{2},\sigma _{2}^{2}) independently

We want to test H_0:\mu_{1}=\mu_{2} vs H_1:\mu_{1}\neq \mu_{2}

define D_i=X_i-Y_i , i=1(1)8

now D_i\sim N(\mu _{1}-\mu _{2}=\mu _{D},\sigma _{1}^{2}+\sigma _{2}^{2}=\sigma _{D}^{2}) , i=1(1)8

the hypothesis becomes

H_0:\mu_{D}=0 vs H_1:\mu_{D}\neq 0

in the third attached image, we use the same test statistic as before

i.e at 5% level of significance there is not enough evidence to indicate a difference in average bonuses .

3 0
2 years ago
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