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zhuklara [117]
3 years ago
6

The cost of finished goods manufactured will exceed the cost of goods sold whenever: Multiple Choice The inventory of finished g

oods increases over the period. The inventory of work in process increases over the period. The inventory of finished goods decreases over the period. The inventory of work in process decreases over the period.
Business
1 answer:
GalinKa [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The inventory of finished goods increases over the period.

Explanation:

mathematically:

Cost of finished goods inventory = Beginning Finished Goods Inventory + Cost of Goods Manufactured - Cost of Goods Sold

= The Ending Finished Goods Inventory Amount

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The internal financial statements of Vera Incorporated show that their beaded purses incurred an operating loss in the most rece
brilliants [131]

Answer:

Vera Incorporated

Change in annual operating income from discontinued business:

Annual Operating Income would reduce by $78,000.

Explanation:

a) Calculation of the Net Income Lost:

Loss of Contribution        ($99,000)

Avoidable fixed cost          $21,000

Reduction of Income       ($78,000)

b) The line of purses contributes $80,000 towards the company's fixed cost.  Therefore, discontinuing this line of business would lead to the loss of this steam of income.  The amount of reduced operating income will be $78,000 ($80,000 - 2,000).

4 0
3 years ago
In two to three sentences, explain why a small amount of inflation encourages economic growth. will give brainliest
mylen [45]

Answer:

A small amount of inflation can be really good for the economy. It can boost consumer demand and consumption. This encourages spending and investing.

4 0
3 years ago
F 1What is the yield to maturity on a 10-year, 9% annual coupon, $1,000 par value bond that sells for $887.00? That sells for $1
Llana [10]

Answer:

When the bond is sale at premium, it means the market rate is lower than coupon rate. So investor purchase the bond a higher price until the bond yield equal the market rate

If sold at discount, the market rate is higher than coupon rate. This means it's sold below face value to increase the bond yield to market rate.

YTM if market price is 887 =  10.7366190%

YTM if market price is 1,134.2= 7.1764596%

Explanation:

For the YTM we can calculate an estimated using the following formula:

YTM = \frac{C + \frac{F-P}{n }}{\frac{F+P}{2}}

Where:

C= coupon payment 1,000 x 9% = 90

F= face value of the bonds = 1000

P= market price = 887

n= years to maturity = 10

YTM =  10.7366190%

YTM = \frac{C + \frac{F-P}{n }}{\frac{F+P}{2}}

C= 90

F= 1000

P= 1134.2

n= 10

YTM = 7.1764596%

A more precise answer can be achieve using excle or a financial calculator.

7 0
3 years ago
You are evaluating an investment that will provide the following cash flows at the end of each of the following years: year 1, $
stealth61 [152]

Answer:

$37,680.95

Explanation:

The maximum i would be willing to pay is the present value of the cash flows

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

Cash flow in year 1 = $12,500

Cash flow in year 2 = $10,000

Cash flow in year 3 = $7,500

Cash flow in year 4 = $5,000

Cash flow in year 5 = $2,500

Cash flow in year 6 = 0

Cash flow in year 7   $12,500

I = 9%

PV = $37,680.95

To find the PV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

3 0
3 years ago
You are the manager of a firm that manufactures front and rear windshields for the automobile industry. Due to economies of scal
Leya [2.2K]

Answer:

a. The optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0)

b. Yes, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because \pi ^{Cheat} > \pi ^{Cooperate}.

Explanation:

a. Determine your optimal pricing strategy if you and your rival believe that the new Highlander is a "special edition" that will be sold only for one year.

Note: See the attached excel file for the Representation of one shot normal for of the game played between "You" and "Your Rival" together with the payoffs.

From the attached excel file, the dominant strategy is for “You” and “Your Rival” to charge “Low Price” each. If the dominant strategy is played by “You” and “Your Rival”, the optimal pricing strategy will be one-shot Nash equilibrium in which “You” charge low price, “Your Rival” charge low price and then the payoff is ($0, $0).

b. Would your answer differ if you and your rival were required to resubmit price quotes year after year and if, in any given year, there was a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander? Explain.

When we have a year-after-year competition between “You” and “Your Rival” but with a 60 percent chance that Toyota would discontinue the Highlander, the payoffs of the firm that continue to comply with the collusive strategy of charging “High Price” by each firm under the normal trigger strategy whereby “You” and “Your Rival” agree to charge high price as long as there is no past deviation by any of the firm, otherwise charge a low price is as follows:

\pi ^{Cooperate} = $6 + $6(100% - 60%) + $6(100% - 60%)^2 + 6(100% - 60%)^2 …….

\pi ^{Cooperate} = $6 / 6% = $10

Therefore, what the firm that cheats earn today is $11 million and it earns $0 forever. The implication of this is that \pi ^{Cheat} = $11

Therefore, the anwer will differ becuase it is not possible to sustain the collusive outcome as a Nash equilibrium because \pi ^{Cheat} > \pi ^{Cooperate}.

Download xlsx
7 0
2 years ago
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