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Slav-nsk [51]
3 years ago
5

Instructions: Select the correct answer.

Mathematics
2 answers:
NNADVOKAT [17]3 years ago
6 0
The formula for the area of a circle (in this case, the disc) is
\pi {r}^{2}
So, we apply the given radius to the formula to give us our answer:
\pi \times  {7.6}^{2}  = 181.4583917
So, your approximate answer is C.
Nataly [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the answer would be <em>C</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

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A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 white marbles, and 4 blue marbles. what is the probability of randomly selecting a red marble, s
Orlov [11]

Answer:

Technically it is 5/12, but as a percentage it would be 41.6666%

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Plz help i need it quick!!! simplify
ale4655 [162]

Answer:im not sure sorry

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
According to national data, 5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests. A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries
blagie [28]

Answer:

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

Step-by-step explanation:

For each burglary, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is cleared, or it is not. The probability of a burglary being cleared is independent of other burglaries. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

5.1% of burglaries are cleared with arrests.

This means that p = 0.051

A new detective is assigned to six different burglaries.

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest?

Either none are cleared, or at least one is. The sum of the probabilities of these events is 100% = 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1)

Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.051)^{0}.(0.949)^{6} = 0.7305

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.7305 = 0.2695

26.95% probability that at least one of them is cleared with an arrest

8 0
3 years ago
IDENTIFY THE PROPERTY WHICH JUSTIFIES THE FOLLOWING CONCLUSION
alexgriva [62]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

17) B. They are adding 2 to both sides.

18) A. A segment is equal to itself.

19) D. They are multiplying both sides by 2.

20) C. They are simply swapping the left and right hand sides of the equation

6 0
2 years ago
Which of the following is a common characteristic of a binomial distribution?
Tanya [424]

Answer:

E. Each trial is independent

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not completely sure why all binomial distribution trials are independent, but there are requirements for binomial distributions.

These requirements are:

- Each outcome is either a success (p) or a failure (Q)

- All trials are independent

- There are a fixed number of "n" trials

- The probability of success (p) is the same for each trial

I also just took the test and got this right.

6 0
2 years ago
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