B because it the right answer there
Answer:
c. $3,200 favorable.
Explanation:
We know that
Total controllable cost variance = Budgeted overhead cost - actual overhead cost
where,
Budgeted overhead cost = Variable overhead + Fixed overhead
where,
Variable overhead = 40,000 units × $2 = $80,000
And, the fixed overhead = $72,000
So, the budgeted overhead = $152,000
And, the actual one is $148,800
So, the total controllable cost variance would be
= $152,000 - $148,800
= $3,200 favorable
Answer:
d. $7,000.
Explanation:
The computation of the loss recorded due to asset impairment is shown below:
= Book value - fair value
= $35,000 - $28,000
= $7,000
If we consider the building and the patent we see that the estimated cash flows are more than the book value, so no loss on impairment should be taken place
Therefore, only $7,000 should be recorded as a loss on impairment of the asset
