For your 4 question option b
Answer:
156
Step-by-step explanation:
1 foot = 12 inches
hope it helps
With ϕ ≈ 1.61803 the golden ratio, we have 1/ϕ = ϕ - 1, so that
![I = \displaystyle \int_0^\infty \frac{\sqrt[\phi]{x} \tan^{-1}(x)}{(1+x^\phi)^2} \, dx = \int_0^\infty \frac{x^{\phi-1} \tan^{-1}(x)}{x (1+x^\phi)^2} \, dx](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=I%20%3D%20%5Cdisplaystyle%20%5Cint_0%5E%5Cinfty%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Csqrt%5B%5Cphi%5D%7Bx%7D%20%5Ctan%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%7D%7B%281%2Bx%5E%5Cphi%29%5E2%7D%20%5C%2C%20dx%20%3D%20%5Cint_0%5E%5Cinfty%20%5Cfrac%7Bx%5E%7B%5Cphi-1%7D%20%5Ctan%5E%7B-1%7D%28x%29%7D%7Bx%20%281%2Bx%5E%5Cphi%29%5E2%7D%20%5C%2C%20dx)
Replace 
:
Split the integral at x = 1. For the integral over [1, ∞), substitute 
:
The integrals involving tan⁻¹ disappear, and we're left with
It is shown that he goes down in a slower time than he does going up.
The answer is D, here’s why:
You know the slope-intercept form is y=mx+b
mx being the slope and b being the y-intercept.
y=-4/7x + 9 is already in that form.
A is not the answer because the y is supposed to be by itself.
B is not the answer because again, the y is not by itself.
C is not the answer because the y is also not by itself.
In the slope-intercept form, the y must be by itself and the slope (mx) and the y-intercept must be on the other side.
Hope this helps.
