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Dovator [93]
3 years ago
12

Two cars are traveling north along a highway. The first drives at 40 mph, and the second, which leaves 3 hours later, travels at

60 mph. How long after the second car leaves will it take for the second car to catch the first?
Mathematics
1 answer:
belka [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

We will make a table and fill it in according to the information provided. What this question is asking us to find, in the end, is how long did it take the cars to travel the same distance. In other words, how long, t, til car 1's distance = car 2's distance. The table looks like this:

              d     =      r     *     t

car1

car2

We can fill in the rates right away:

             d       =      r     *     t

car1                       40

car2                       60

Now it tells us that car 2 leaves 3 hours after car 1, so logically that means that car 1 has been driving 3 hours longer than car 2:

            d     =      r      *      t

car1                     40         t + 3

car2                     60           t

Because distance = rate * time, the distances fill in like this:

                   d      =      r      *      t

car1    40(t + 3)    =      40        t+3

car2          60t     =       60         t

Going back to the interpretation of the original question, I am looking to solve for t when the distance of car 1 = the distance of car 2. Therefore,

40(t+3) = 60t and

40t + 120 = 60t and

120 = 20t so

t = 6 hours.

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Acellus
taurus [48]

Answer:

The Probability is 63.7%

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to calculate the area of the circle and the area of the square

From the question, we can see that the square is of side 4 √2 cm

The area of the square is simply the square of its side length

We have this as 4√2 * 4√2 = 16 * 2 = 32 cm^2

The area of the circle can be calculated using the formula for the area of a circle, with the radius being 4 cm

So, we have the area of the circle as;

Pi * r^2

= 22/7 * 4 * 4 = 50.3 cm^2

so, to find the probability, we need to divide the area of the circle by the area of the square

we have this as;

32/50.3 = 0.6366

In percentage, we simply multiply by 100% to give

0.6366 * 100% = 63.66%

To the nearest tenth, this is 63.7%

8 0
3 years ago
Choose the correct simplification of the expression (3x - 6)(2x^2 - 4x - 5) ?
topjm [15]

= 3x(2x^2 - 4x - 5) - 6(2x^2 - 4x - 5)

= 6x^3 - 12x^2 - 15x - 12x^2 + 24x + 30

= 6x^3 - 24x^2 + 9x + 30 (answer)

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Express 3 objects as a percentage of 1 dozen<br>show working.​
user100 [1]

Answer:

25%

Step-by-step explanation:

1 dozen = 12

3 out of 12

3/12

Simplify

1/4

Multiply top and bottom by 25 to get a denominator of 100

25/100

25%

3 0
3 years ago
You buy 2 packages of ground beef. One package contains 4.5 pounds and the other contains 2.25 pounds. Your put equal amounts of
ikadub [295]
.75 pounds in each bag. If you add the total pounds of meat in the 2 packages, 4.5+2.25 you get 6.75. if you divide all 6.75 pounds equally into 9 bags, 6.75/9, you would get a total of .75 or 3/4 of a pound in each bag.
7 0
2 years ago
g Consider the experiment of a single roll of an honest die and a single toss of 3 fair coins. Let X be the value on the die and
klemol [59]

Answer:

The probability function of X and Y is

P(X = k, Y = 0)  = 1/48\\P(X = k, Y = 1) = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 2) = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 3) = 1/48

With k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}

Step-by-step explanation:

We can naturally assume that X and Y are independent. Because of that, P(X=a, Y=b) = P(X=a) * P(Y=b) for any a, b.

Note that, since the die is honest, then P(X=k) = 1/6 for any k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}. We can conclude as a consequence that P(X=k, Y=l) = P(Y=l)/6 for any k in {1,2,3,4,5,6}.

Y has a binomial distribution, with parameters n = 3, p = 1/2. Y has range {0,1,2,3}. Lets compute the probability mass function of Y:

P_Y(0) = {3 \choose 0} * 0.5^3 = 1/8

P_Y(1) = {3 \choose 1} * 0.5* 0.5^2 = 3/8

P_Y(2) = {3 \choose 2} * 0.5^2*0.5 = 3/8

P_Y(3) = {3 \choose 3} * 0.5^3 = 1/8

Thus, we can conclude that the joint probability function is given by the following formula

P(X = k, Y = 0) = 1/8 * 1/6 = 1/48\\P(X = k, Y = 1) = 3/8 * 1/6 = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 2) = 3/8 * 1/6 = 1/16\\P(X = k, Y = 3) = 1/8 * 1/6 = 1/48

For any k in {0,1,2,3,4,5,6}

4 0
3 years ago
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