The answer is Congress :)
Answer:
The most I could pay for the investment is $12,960.09
Explanation:
The maximum a rational investor could pay acquire an investment is the present value of all future cash flows receivable from the investment.
In the case, the present of all cash flows is calculated thus:
Years Cashflows [email protected] 12% PV
1 5000 0.892857143 4,464.29
2 5300 0.797193878 4,225.13
3 6000 0.711780248 4,270.68
Total of present values 12,960.09
The discounting factor is calculated using the formula :
1/(1+r)^n where r and n are rate and number of years respectively.
Answer:
The correct answer is "indirect attack or bypass attack"
Explanation:
Bypass Attack or indirect attack is when the market challenger doesn´t attack directly a company leader, but increases its market share by attacking the vulnerable market.
Expanding into the untapped markets and innovating the actual product with technology.
The ending equity is $315,000 This is just a matter of adding income and subtracting withdraws. So let's do it. "Cragmont has beginning equity of $277,000," x = $277000 "net income of $63,000" x = $277000 + $63000 = $340000 "withdrawals of $25,000" x = $340000 - $25000 = $315000
Answer:
Contribution margin ratio = Contribution margin / Sales
Product C90B CMR = ($23,490 - $7,047) / $23,490 = $16,443 / $23,490 = 0.7 = 70%
Product Y45E CMR = ($34,800 - $13,920) / $34,800 = $20,880 / $34,800 = 0.6 = 60%
The rule, <em>the Higher the contribution margin ratio, the lower the Break-Even point. </em>So, if sales mix shifts to product C90B, overall Break-even point <u>Decreases</u>.
