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-Dominant- [34]
3 years ago
6

If the currency in circulation is $100 million, checkable bank deposits are $500 million, savings deposits are $300 million, and

traveler's checks are $10 million, then M1 is:__________
Business
1 answer:
andreyandreev [35.5K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: $610 million

Explanation:

M1 includes currency in circulation, checkable bank deposits and traveler's checks.

M1 = $100 million + $500 million + $10 million = $610 million

Savings deposits is part of M2

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At age 37 you start saving for retirement if your investment plan pays an APR of 6% and you want to have $.09 million when you r
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

Monthly deposit= $1,036.116

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Future Value (FV)= $900,000

Number of periods= 28*12= 336 months

Interest rate (i)= 6% = 0.06/12= 0.005

<u>To calculate the monthly deposit, we need to use the following formula:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= monthly deposit

Isolating A:

A= (FV*i)/{[(1+i)^n]-1}

A= {900,000*0.005) / [(1.005^336) - 1]

A= $1,036.116

7 0
2 years ago
Question 5 of 10
deff fn [24]

Answer:

A.

Explanation:

Another name for specialization, this is when an individual focuses

on one specific skill in the field.

6 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a 1960s movie, an heiress sends out thousands of letters to shareholders in an attempt to have them vote for her and for the
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

The kind of corporate takeover technique implemented in the film is proxy fight.

Explanation:

A proxy fight is termed as a technique where two corporate factions ask the stakeholders for the proxy votes such that the right of voting is transferred.

In this case both the parties, the heiress as well as the opponent is asking for the right of vote from  stakeholders so that they can decide the corporate future. This is the key feature of the proxy fight and thus this is the correct option.

6 0
3 years ago
The allowance for doubtful accounts currently has a debit balance of $200. The company's management estimates that 2.5% of net c
lidiya [134]

Answer:

Bad debt expense (w/o allowance) = $2,875

Bad debt expense ( with allowance) = $2,675.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Net credit sales = $115,000

Uncollectible percentage = 2.5%

So, we can calculate the bad debt expense without Allowance for doubtful accounts by using following method:

Bad debt expense ( W/o allowance) = $115,000 × 2.5%

= $2,875

After Allowance for doubtful expense

Bad debt expense = $2,875 - $200

= $2,675

4 0
3 years ago
Five hundred units of good x are currently bought and sold. The marginal buyer is willing to pay $40 for the 500th unit, and the
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

D : All options are correct

Explanation:

- The marginal buyer is the essence of demand curve while marginal seller is essence of supply curve.

- @ Q = 500 units,    Selling Price is set at SP = $35

- @ Q = 500 units,    Buying Price is set at BP = $40

- Since, SP ≠ BP our equilibrium price would be $ 37.5 assuming the price elasticity of demand and supply are equal. In any case the equilibrium price would lie in between [ 35 , 40 ] such that to prevent a shortage of units in near future.

- Moreover, if the seller decides to sell at price $35 then he must sell goods greater than 500 units to reach the equilibrium profits. However, it could also lead to excess of units or surplus.

- We see that from selling the goods at SP = $35 while the buyer is willing to pay BP = $40 for 500 goods, the seller would be under-profiting and would be earning $5*500 = $2,500 less than he would at equilibrium price of $40 and selling units greater than 500. Hence, 500 goods is not an efficient quantity of goods.

6 0
3 years ago
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