We can use the binomial theorem to find the probability that 0 out of the 15 samples will be defective, given that 20% are defective.
P(0/15) = (15C0) (0.2)^0 (1 - 0.2)^15 = (1)(1)(0.8)^15 = 0.0352
Then the probability that at least 1 is defective is equal to 1 - 0.0352 = 0.9648. This means there is a 96.48% chance that at least 1 of the 15 samples will be found defective. This is probably sufficient, though it depends on her significance level. If the usual 95% is used, then this is enough.
Answer:108
Step-by-step explanation:
1)
A has a greater principal
2)
Principal of A is $500, the principal of B is $400, so A's principal is greater by $100
3)
Annual interest rate of A:
10/500 x 100
interest rate of A = 2%
The interest rate of B is higher.
4)
B's annual interest rate is 5% and A's annual interest rate is 2%, so B's is higher by 3%.
Answer:
=46.27in
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Don't know every option makes sense.
I think I will go with A because the size of the shape remains the same.
//Not sure.