Answer:
B) cost of merchandise sold divided by average inventory.
Explanation:
Inventory turnover: It is a liquidity ratio that measures the number of times on average a company sold or replaced its inventory during the period. Computed as the cost of goods sold / by the average inventory on hand during the period. Analysts compute average inventory from the beginning and ending inventory balances. The ideal inventory turnover ratio is about 4 to 6, it is a rate at which restock item is well balanced with the sold inventory.
Answer:
Lapping scheme
Explanation:
Lapping scheme -
It is a fraud practice , which involves the alteration of the accounts received to hide or cover the stolen payments .
This method involve taking the subsequent receivable payments and using them to cover the theft .
<u>And the next receivable is only applied when the previous is unpaid receivable .</u>
Answer:
Fee based fund is the correct answer to the given question
Explanation:
In the fee based funds exercise the money is charged directly to customers.The Fee-Based Funds is imposing the charge of sales to the customer .The Fee-based funds consultants could charge an extra payment of fixed price according to the company policy .
- When the company sells the mutual fund in a fee-based consideration individuals will buy the bond fund Series of the F units.
- All the other options are not related to imposing the sales charge that's why they are incorrect option .
Answer:
B. Thanks can have collection agencies seize part of the borrowers income
Explanation: I just got it right for a p e x