Answer:
The period of payback of the project is 2.30 years. Therefore, the correct answer is C
Explanation:
We will computing the Cumulative Cash Flow from Year 0 to Year 3
Cumulative Cash Flow Year 0 = Cash Flow of Year 0
= -$1,150
Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 1 = Cash Flow of Year 1 + Cash Flow of Year 0
= $500 + (-$1,150)
= -$650
Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 2 = Cash Flow of Year 2 + Cumulative Cash Flow Cash Flow of Year 1
= $500 + (-$650)
= -$150
Cumulative Cash Flow of Year 3 = Cash Flow of Year 3 + Cumulative Cash Flow Cash Flow of Year 2
= $500 + (-$150)
= $350
Now, Computing the Pay back period with the formula:
Pay back period = 2 + (Cumulative Cash Flow of year 2 / Cash flow of year 3)
= 2 + (-$150/ $500)
= 2 + 0.3
= 2.3 years
a. Standard labor-hours is 7920 hours.
b. Standard labor cost allowed is $42,768.
c. The labor spending variance is $1588(U).
d. The labor rate variance is $1706 and the labor efficiency variance $3294(U).
e. The variable overhead rate is $5971(U) and efficiency variances for the month $5580(U).
<u>Explanation:</u>
a)Standars hours(SH) allowed to make 19800 jogging mates
=SH per unit 
19800
=(24/60)*19800
=7920 hours
24/60 has been taken to convert minutes into hours.
b)Standard Labor Cost (SC) of 19800 jogging mates
=$42,768
c)Labour Spending Variance
=$1588(U)
d)Labor Rate Variance
=$1706
Actual Hours(AH) * Actual Rate per hour(AR)= Actual Cost(AC)
Labor Efficiency Variance
=$3294(U)
e) Variable overhead rate variance = Actual hours worked (Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate)
= 8530 (4.5 - 5.20)
= $5971(U)
Actual overhead rate = $44,356 / 8530 = 5.20
Variable overhead efficiency variance = Standard overhead rate (Standard hours - Actual hours)
= 4.50 (7290 - 8530)
= $5580(U).
Answer:
The days' sales uncollected ratio is used to: Estimate how much time is likely to pass before the amount of accounts receivable is received in cash
Explanation:
The days' sales uncollected ratio is an Asset Management ratio which calculates the length of time that it to collect credit from a customer and the first option is correct.
Answer:
1) The fixed overhead production-volume variance is $14400 favourable.
2) The fixed overhead spending variance is $9000 unfavourable.
Explanation:
1)
Fixed overhead production volume variance
= amount applied * amount budgeted
= 144000/30000
= 4.80 per unit
= 4.80*33000 - 144000
= $14400 favourable
Therefore, The fixed overhead production-volume variance is $14400 favourable.
2)
fixed overhead spending variance
= actual overhead - budgeted overhead
= 153000 - 144000
= $9000 unfavourable
Therefore, The fixed overhead spending variance is $9000 unfavourable.
Answer:
The answer is: Stock markets reflect all available information about the value of stocks
Explanation:
Efficient market hypothesis (EMH) is an investment theory about stock markets where the price of stocks is always the fair market value of the stocks. It argues that it is impossible for someone to determine when stocks are either undervalued or overvalued. So all the technical and fundamental analysis techniques are useless.
