The answer would be:
Korea: 6
Italy: 7
France: 8
6, 7, 8 are consecutive numbers because they go in the order that you would count from 1-x(an infinite number) with.
I hope this helped! If you have further questions don't be afraid to ask!
~Travis
The answer is d)3 because each number gets multiplied by 3 to qual the next number
Answer:
6:1
Step-by-step explanation:
48:( 4+4 )
= 48:8
= <u>6:1</u>
Answer:
13
Step-by-step explanation:
Use the Pythagorean theorem:
- a^2 + b^2 = c^2
- 5^2 + 12^2 = c^2
- 25 + 144 = c^2
- c^2 = 169
- 13
Note: This also happens to be a Pythagorean triple where all three numbers are integers. These can be memorized.
Answer:
(0,0) is among the solutions
Step-by-step explanation:
The given inequality is 
A solution to this inequality is any ordered pair that satisfies the inequality.
Let us check for x=0 and y=0
We substitute to get:
....This is true.
Therefore (0,0) is a solution to the given inequality.
There are infinitely many solutions.
