Answer:
The answer is "Option a"
Explanation:
In the given question only "option a" is correct, which can be described as follows:
- He is the owner and managing director of an organization and recently he introduced media attention initiatives to encourage a specific app controlled by federal law.
- Its law is rather ambiguous. He reviewed the relevant law before starting the initiative and met with his counsel in an attempt to comply with the rule. Even so, this state attorney general's office also filed a suit against him after misleading publicity.
- He provides the best defense, which acted in good faith with proper research and in line with an unspecified rule.
Answer:
$6,000
Explanation:
The computation of the dividend amount distributed to preferred shareholders is shown below:
= Number of non-cumulative preferred stock shares × par value per share × dividend rate
= 10,000 shares × $10 × 6%
= $6,000
In the case of the non-cumulative preferred stock, if there are dividend arrears, the same is not paid.
Simply we multiplied the preferred stock share by the par value and the dividend rate so that the estimated value can come
Answer:
-5.14 for sam
-18.01% for dave
Explanation:
We first calculate for Sam
R = 7.3%
We have 2% increase
= 9.3%
We calculate for present value of coupon and present value at maturity using the formula for present value in the attachment
To get C
1000 x 0.073/2
= 36.5
time= 3 years x 2 times payment = 6
Ytm = rate = 9.3%/2 = 0.0465
Putting values into the formula
36.5[1-(1+0.0465)^-6/0.0465]
= 36.5(1-0.7613/0.0465)
36.5(0.2385/0.0465)
= 36.5 x 5.129
Present value of coupon = 187.20
We solve for maturity
M = 1000
T = 6 months
R = 0.0465
1000/(1+0.0465)⁶
= 1000/1.3135
Present value = 761.32
We add up the value of present value at maturity and that at coupon
761.32 + 187.20
= $948.52
Change in % = 948.52/1000 - 1
= -0.05148
= -5.14 for sam
We calculate for Dave
He has 20 years and payment is two times yearly
= 20x2 = 40
36.5 [1-(1+0.0465)^-40/0.0465]
Present value = 36.5 x 18.014
= 657.511
At maturity,
Present value = 1000/(1+0.0465)⁴⁰
= 1000/6.1598
= 162.34
We add up these present values
= 657.511+162.34 = $819.851
Change = 819.851/1000 -1
= -0.1801
= -18.01%
Answer: The answers are explained below.
Explanation:
• Cost of debt: The cost of debt is the interest rate that a company is charged on its debts. It is the interest paid on bonds, loans etc. The cost of debt is usually the before-tax cost of a debt.
• Cost of equity: The cost of equity is the return a firm pays to its equity investors e.g shareholders in order to reward them for the risk taken by investing their capital. Companies need capital to operate and grow hence, individuals and organizations who provide funds to such companies are rewarded.
• After tax WACC: The Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is a firm's combined cost of capital including preferred shares, common shares, and debt after the deduction of tax.
• Equity Beta: It measures the sensitivity of the stock price to changes in market. Equity Beta is also called levered beta.
• Asset beta: It is the beta of a firm without the effect of debt. It is a company's volatility of returns without its indebtedness.
• Pure play comparable: The pure play comparable is the taking of the beta estimate of another company that is comparable and in same line of business.
• Certainty equivalent: It is the guaranteed return that an individual would take now, rather than awaiting a higher but uncertain return later in the future.
