Answer: B. reduces reported net income of the period but does not involve an outflow of cash for that period.
Explanation:
Depreciation is the wear and tear of an asset due to the use of the asset. When an asset is depreciated, such an asset is eventually sold at a scrap value.
The statement of cash flows (indirect method) reports depreciation expense as an addition to net income because depreciation reduces reported net income of the period but does not involve an outflow of cash for that period.
Answer:
See below
Explanation:
Given the above information, first we'll compute net proceeds
Cash received $7,200,000 × 86%
$6,192,000
Add:
Due from factors $7,200,000 × 9%
$648,000
Less;
Recourse obligation
($5,000)
Net proceeds
$6,835,000
Answer:
Portfolio A and Portfolio B
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
The Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return) = Market risk premium
Let us assume the market risk premium be X
For Portfolio A:
21% = 8% + 1.3 × X
13% = 1.3 × X
So, the X = 10%
For Portfolio B:
17% = 8% + 0.7 × X
9% = 0.7 × X
So, the X = 12.86%
Based on the market risk premium calculations, we can conclude that Portfolio A should be in short position while Portfolio B should be in long position as portfolio B has higher market risk premium than B
Look on jiskha you will find your answer I promise