Using the binomial distribution, there is a 0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
For each box, there are only two possible outcomes, either it has a prize, or it does not. The probability of a box having a prize is independent of any other box, hence, the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- She buys 5 boxes, hence

- 1 in 4 boxes has a prize, hence

The probability is:

Hence:



Then

0.6328 = 63.28% probability that she wins at most 1 prize.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
For the equation to = 0 , one of the components must = 0
x = 0
x = -13/9
x = -2/11
(Make each bracket = 0)
e.g. 9x+13=0
9x = -13
x = -13/9
Answer:
The answer is 15%
Step-by-step explanation:
The answer is 15% because 15% of 12.99 is 2.00
Answer:
11.3
Step-by-step explanation:
4.5x2.5
11.25
11.3
8046 / 2 = 4023 --> each week.
- now multiply that by 6.
4023 X 6 = 24,138 pennies.