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3 years ago

Losses on the sale of long-term assets for cash:

Business

1 answer:

atroni [7]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: (D) Are the excess of the book value over the cash received

Explanation:

The long term assets are mainly said to be sell in loss when, the actual selling price of the long termed investment are less than the value of the book and also the carrying value of the investment in books.

We can also find out the actual gain or loss as if cash receive are greater as compared to the assets vale of the book, then it is said to be gain. If cash receive are less as compared to the assets value of the book, then it is said to be loss.

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Palmer Products has outstanding bonds with an annual 8 percent coupon. The bonds have a par value of $1,000 and a price of $865.

Andre45 [30]

The yield to maturity on the bonds is 10.0868%

<u>Explanation</u>:

Given,

Annual coupon rate = 8% = 0.08

Par value = $ 1000

Price = $ 865

N = 11 $\times$ 1 .

PV = $ 865

PMT = ( Par Value $\times$ The coupon rate) / F

= ( 1000 $\times$ 0.08 ) / 1

= 80.

FV = 1000.

Financial calculator solution

the yield to maturity = I = 0.1008668

= 10.0868% .

6 0

3 years ago

For each of the following accounts indicate the effect of a debit or a credit on the account and the normal balance.

mestny [16]

Answer:

dont be lonely

Explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

Feliz [49]

Answer: a. requires financial institutions to ensure the security of customer data.

Explanation:

The Gramm–Leach–Bliley Act (GLBA), which is also known as the Financial Services Modernization Act of 1999 is an act of the 106th United States Congress.

The Act requires that Financial Institutions such as commercial banks, investment banks, securities firms, and insurance companies under the FINANCIAL PRIVACY rule ensure that they explained their information sharing principles of their customers' information to their customers and to safeguard sensitive data.

7 0

3 years ago

The exact indifference curves of different investors:_______

tatuchka [14]

Answer:

Option c) cannot be known with perfect certainty and, although not known with perfect certainty, do allow the advisor to create more suitable portfolios for the client.

Explanation:

The indifference curves notably cannot be calculated on a precise point but the theory does allow for the invention or creation of more suitable portfolios for investors that has dissimilar levels of risk tolerance.

An Indifference curve is commonly known as a line. The line depicts or shows combinations of goods among which a consumer is indifferent. It shows also the combinations of goods that can be are affordable. In the curve,consumer tend to not like or desire one combination of goods to another combination of goods that is shown on a curve/line.

5 0

3 years ago

The Short-Line Railroad is considering a $100,000 investment in either of two companies. The cash flows are as follows: Year Ele

Alex Ar [27]

Answer:

a. 3 years and 3 years

b. either company can be selected

Explanation:

a. In the payback, we analyze how many years the invested amount is recovered. The computation is shown below:

= Initial investment ÷ Net cash flow

For Electric Co.

In year 0 = $100,000

In year 1 = $70,000

In year 2 = $15,000

In year 3 = $15,000

In year 4 to 10 = $10,000

If we sum the first 3 year cash inflows than it would be $100,000 which is equal to the initial investment

So, the payback period equal to

= $100,000 ÷ $100,000 = 3 years

In 3 years, the invested amount is recovered.

For Water Works

In year 0 = $100,000

In year 1 = $15,000

In year 2 = $15,000

In year 3 = $70,000

In year 4 to 10 = $10,000

If we sum the first 3 year cash inflows than it would be $100,000 which is equal to the initial investment

So, the payback period equal to

= $100,000 ÷ $100,000 = 3 years

In 3 years, the invested amount is recovered.

b. Since both the companies has same payback period so either company can be selected

8 0

4 years ago