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Goryan [66]
3 years ago
12

Losses on the sale of long-term assets for cash:

Business
1 answer:
atroni [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: (D) Are the excess of the book value over the cash received

Explanation:

 The long term assets are mainly said to be sell in loss when, the actual selling price of the long termed investment are less than the value of the book and also the carrying value of the investment in books.

We can also find out the actual gain or loss as if cash receive are greater as compared to the assets vale of the book, then it is said to be gain. If cash receive are less as compared to the assets value of the book, then it is said to be loss.

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Daniel, an entrepreneur, is planning to open a fast-food restaurant. He wants to cash in on the huge population of busy professi
Karo-lina-s [1.5K]

Answer:

the answer is none of these

8 0
3 years ago
Huduko Inc. offers a number of computer services. Huduko operates with a utilization of 30 percent. The interarrival time of job
guapka [62]

Answer:

Huduko Inc.

The number of servers in this system is:

= 200.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Utilization rate = 30%

Interarrival time of jobs = 8 milliseconds (0.008)

Coefficient of variation = 1.5

Average jobs waiting in the queue to be served = 20

Number of jobs in process = 60

Number of servers processing the 60 jobs = 60

Since the number of servers processing at a time is 60 with a utilization rate of 30%, it means that there are 200 servers in the system (60/30%).

7 0
3 years ago
The Federal Reserve System and the New York Stock Exchange regulations currently require the short seller to have an initial mar
lutik1710 [3]

Answer:

Correct answer is 50%

Explanation:

The appropriate response is half.  

The Regulation T of the Federal Reserve Board requires the equalization for all short deal records to be at any rate 150% of the estimation of the protections at the time the deal is started.  

This implies when the short deal is started, as we are selling the offers first, our record will have the 100% estimation of the offers sold (as we receipts of cash from selling) in addition to an extra edge prerequisite of half of the estimation of the short deal.  

For instance, on the off chance that I am short selling an offer whose cost is $100, at that point when I short sell the offer, my record equalization will become $100, as receipts of the deal.  

Along these lines, at the hour of inception of offer, my record equalization ought to be 150% of the estimation of short deal = 150% of $100 = $150. The separation of this sum is  

100% of $100 = $100, which gets credited to my record  

in addition half of $100 = $50, which is the edge necessity at the inception of short deal.  

In this way, Initial edge necessity is atleast half of the cost of the stock.  

The student ought not befuddle the underlying edge necessity with the base upkeep edge.  

The base support edge required to be kept up is 25%. This implies the short dealer ought to consistently have an edge (not balance) of 25% in the record. In the event that the edge goes beneath 25%, at that point the edge require the distinction sum is actuated, which the short dealer is required to pay to keep on keeping her situation in the market unaltered.  

Be that as it may, beginning edge required to be kept up is half.

8 0
3 years ago
A typical housing lease may require a tenant to?
Firlakuza [10]
It depends on the property and location.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are analyzing a project with an initial cost of £130,000. The project is expected to return £20,000 the first year, £50,000
Mashutka [201]

Answer: Net Present Value = -$19,062

Explanation:

First, we'll compute the PV for the respective years

Present Value (Year-1)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{1}

=0.6179945

Present Value (Year-2)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{2}

=0.614904528

Present Value (Year-3)

= 0.6211 \times [1 + (0.055 - 0.06)]^{3}

=0.611830005

Now, we'll compute the Cash Flow for the respective years

Cash Flow (Initial)

= -130,000\times (\frac{1}{0.6211} )

= -$209,306.07

Cash Flow (Year-1)

=20,000\times (\frac{1}{0.61799} )

=$32,362.75

Cash Flow (Year-2)

=50,000\times (\frac{1}{0.61490} )

=$81,313.44

Cash Flow (Year-3)

= 90,000\times (\frac{1}{0.611830} )

=$147,099.68

Net Present Value:

= -$209,306.07 + ($32,362.75/1.141)+ ($81,313.44/1.142) +($147,099.68/1.143)

= -$209,306.07 +$28,388.38 + $62,568.05 + $99,288.10

= -$19,062

3 0
3 years ago
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